MET Reading Practice Test 9 — Grammar, Single-Text & Multiple-Text With Answers

Free MET Reading practice test 9: 20 grammar questions, 2 reading passages (10 questions) and 2 multiple-text sets (20 questions) — all 50 questions with the answer key and explanations.

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The complete Reading Practice Test 9 in the official MET structure: Grammar (20 questions), single-text reading (2 passages, 10 questions) and multiple-text reading (2 sets, 20 questions) — 50 questions in 65 minutes.

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Part 1 — Grammar (20 questions)

Each sentence has a missing word or phrase. Choose the best option to complete the sentence.

1. The biologist _____ the specimen under a microscope when she noticed an unusual cellular pattern.

  1. observes
  2. observed
  3. was observing
  4. has observed
Answer: C

Why: Past continuous is used for an ongoing action when a discovery occurred.

2. Should you require any assistance, please _____ to contact our support team.

  1. not hesitate
  2. don't hesitate
  3. won't hesitate
  4. wouldn't hesitate
Answer: A

Why: 'Should you...' is an inverted first conditional; main clause uses base form.

3. The proposal _____ by the committee last Thursday will be implemented next quarter.

  1. approved
  2. approving
  3. was approved
  4. has approved
Answer: A

Why: Past participle 'approved' acts as a reduced passive relative clause.

4. The guide explained that the temple _____ on the site of an even older shrine.

  1. builds
  2. built
  3. was built
  4. had been built
Answer: D

Why: Past perfect passive is used in reported speech for an action before another past reference.

5. The course covers both theoretical principles _____ practical applications in the field.

  1. or
  2. nor
  3. but
  4. and
Answer: D

Why: 'Both...and' is the correct correlative conjunction pair.

6. _____ of my colleagues were able to attend the conference due to budget restrictions.

  1. Much
  2. Neither
  3. Every
  4. Few
Answer: D

Why: 'Few' is used with plural countable nouns to express a small number.

7. The moment _____ the announcement was made, the entire room erupted in applause.

  1. which
  2. where
  3. what
  4. when
Answer: D

Why: 'When' is the relative adverb for time references.

8. The journalist was accused of _____ information from confidential sources.

  1. leak
  2. to leak
  3. leaking
  4. leaked
Answer: C

Why: 'Accused of' is followed by a gerund.

9. No other candidate demonstrated _____ proficiency in data analysis as Dr. Chen.

  1. as great
  2. greater
  3. greatest
  4. more greater
Answer: A

Why: 'As...as' structure is used for equal comparison.

10. The union's position is that management _____ all outstanding grievances before negotiations resume.

  1. addresses
  2. address
  3. addressed
  4. addressing
Answer: B

Why: Subjunctive requires the base form 'address' after 'position is that'.

11. The two companies decided to _____ and form a joint venture in the Asian market.

  1. team down
  2. team out
  3. team up
  4. team off
Answer: C

Why: 'Team up' is a phrasal verb meaning 'join together for a common purpose'.

12. Hardly _____ the building when the earthquake struck without warning.

  1. they had entered
  2. entered they
  3. had they entered
  4. they entered
Answer: C

Why: 'Hardly...when' uses subject-auxiliary inversion with past perfect.

13. Before the policy change, the company _____ remote work for over a decade.

  1. allows
  2. was allowing
  3. has allowed
  4. had allowed
Answer: D

Why: Past perfect is used for an action continuing up to another past event.

14. If the restaurant _____ better reviews, we would consider making a reservation there.

  1. has
  2. had
  3. will have
  4. had had
Answer: B

Why: Second conditional uses past simple in the if-clause.

15. The chemicals _____ during the manufacturing process are strictly regulated by federal law.

  1. using
  2. are used
  3. were used
  4. used
Answer: D

Why: Past participle 'used' acts as a reduced passive relative clause.

16. The vendor inquired _____ we needed the supplies delivered by Friday.

  1. that
  2. what
  3. if
  4. which
Answer: C

Why: 'If' introduces an indirect yes/no question.

17. We narrowly avoided _____ into the car that had stopped suddenly ahead of us.

  1. crash
  2. crashed
  3. to crash
  4. crashing
Answer: D

Why: 'Avoid' is followed by a gerund.

18. In no other profession _____ ethical standards more rigorously enforced than in medicine.

  1. that
  2. are
  3. have
  4. do
Answer: B

Why: 'In no other profession' triggers subject-auxiliary inversion with 'are'.

19. The more we talked, _____ we realized we had in common.

  1. the more
  2. more
  3. most
  4. the most
Answer: A

Why: Double comparative: 'the more..., the more...'

20. It is vital that the backup data _____ stored in a separate physical location.

  1. is
  2. was
  3. be
  4. being
Answer: C

Why: Subjunctive requires the base form 'be' after 'vital that'.

Part 2 — Single-text reading (10 questions)

The global campaign against single-use plastics has yielded measurable results over the past decade. More than sixty countries have enacted full or partial bans on plastic bags, and the European Union's directive banning ten categories of single-use plastic items took full effect in 2021. However, a pressing question has emerged: what is replacing plastic, and is it actually better? Bioplastics, often derived from corn starch or sugarcane, have been positioned as the environmentally friendly successor. Yet their production requires vast agricultural land — an estimated 2.5 million hectares globally — competing with food crops and contributing to deforestation. A life-cycle analysis conducted by the University of Bonn found that some bioplastics generate more greenhouse gases during production than conventional plastics, largely due to the energy-intensive agricultural processes involved. Paper bags, another common alternative, require four times as much water to produce as plastic bags and generate higher carbon emissions during manufacturing and transport due to their greater weight. The emerging consensus among environmental scientists is that material substitution alone is insufficient. What is needed, they argue, is a fundamental shift toward reusable systems — from refillable containers to deposit-return schemes — that reduce overall material consumption rather than simply swapping one disposable item for another.

21. What is the main argument of this passage?

  1. Plastic bans should be reversed
  2. Replacing plastics with alternatives may not solve environmental problems
  3. Bioplastics are always better than regular plastics
  4. Paper bags are the ideal solution
Answer: B

22. How many countries have enacted plastic bag bans?

  1. Over forty
  2. Over fifty
  3. Over sixty
  4. Over seventy
Answer: C

23. What did the University of Bonn study find about some bioplastics?

  1. They produce no greenhouse gases
  2. They may generate more greenhouse gases during production than conventional plastics
  3. They are cheaper to produce than all alternatives
  4. They decompose instantly in landfills
Answer: B

24. The phrase 'life-cycle analysis' is closest in meaning to:

  1. An examination of an animal's lifespan
  2. An assessment of environmental impacts across a product's entire existence
  3. A study of human aging
  4. An analysis of corporate profits
Answer: B

25. What do environmental scientists recommend instead of material substitution?

  1. Making all products from plastic
  2. A fundamental shift toward reusable systems
  3. Banning all consumer products
  4. Focusing only on paper as a replacement
Answer: B
Autonomous vehicles have navigated a bumpy road from technological marvel to regulatory puzzle. While the sensors and algorithms that enable self-driving have advanced rapidly, the legal frameworks governing their deployment have lagged considerably. In the United States, the absence of comprehensive federal legislation has created a patchwork of state-level regulations, with Arizona and California emerging as testing hubs while other states have effectively banned autonomous testing on public roads. The central dilemma revolves around liability. When a self-driving car causes an accident, who is responsible — the vehicle owner, the manufacturer, the software developer, or the sensor supplier? In 2023, a landmark case in Germany established that the manufacturer bears primary liability unless the owner has modified the vehicle's systems, creating a precedent that other jurisdictions are studying. Insurance companies have responded cautiously, with several major insurers developing specialized autonomous vehicle policies. These policies typically require continuous software updates and restrict operation to pre-mapped geographic zones. The automotive industry has called for international standards that would harmonize these rules, arguing that a fragmented regulatory environment stifles innovation and slows the deployment of a technology that could significantly reduce traffic fatalities.

26. What does the passage identify as the main challenge for autonomous vehicles?

  1. The technology doesn't work yet
  2. The legal and regulatory frameworks are underdeveloped
  3. Consumers don't want self-driving cars
  4. Roads are not suitable for autonomous vehicles
Answer: B

27. Which two US states are mentioned as testing hubs?

  1. New York and Florida
  2. Arizona and California
  3. Texas and Michigan
  4. Nevada and Oregon
Answer: B

28. What was established by the 2023 German court case?

  1. Autonomous vehicles are banned on highways
  2. Manufacturers bear primary liability for accidents
  3. Only human drivers can be held responsible
  4. Software developers are exempt from all liability
Answer: B

29. The word 'patchwork' in the passage is closest in meaning to:

  1. A single universal standard
  2. An inconsistent collection of varying rules
  3. A type of fabric
  4. A government program
Answer: B

30. What do specialized autonomous vehicle insurance policies typically require?

  1. Manual driving only
  2. Continuous software updates and operation in pre-mapped zones
  3. A qualified human co-driver at all times
  4. Government ownership of the vehicle
Answer: B

Part 3 — Multiple-text reading (20 questions)

Nighttime Noise Ordinance

City Council Notice The council has adopted a new noise ordinance effective next month. Construction activities must cease by 8 PM on weekdays and 6 PM on weekends. Bars and restaurants with outdoor seating must close their patios by 11 PM Sunday through Thursday, and by midnight on Fridays and Saturdays. Fines start at $250 for first-time violations.
Restaurant Owners' Press Conference Closing patios at 11 PM will cripple our businesses. The hours between ten and midnight account for roughly thirty percent of our evening revenue during summer months. We've invested thousands in sound-dampening barriers and landscaping to reduce noise. The council consulted no one from the hospitality sector before passing this ordinance.
Resident Neighborhood Association Newsletter For years, our evenings have been disrupted by construction noise and late-night bar crowds. Last summer, a resident on Maple Street recorded noise levels above seventy decibels at 1 AM — equivalent to a vacuum cleaner running outside your bedroom window. The ordinance is long overdue. Quality of life matters too.

31. By what time must construction cease on weekdays under the new ordinance?

  1. 6 PM
  2. 7 PM
  3. 8 PM
  4. 9 PM
Answer: C

32. What is the fine for first-time violations?

  1. $150
  2. $250
  3. $350
  4. $500
Answer: B

33. How much of evening revenue do restaurant owners say the affected hours represent?

  1. Roughly twenty percent
  2. Roughly thirty percent
  3. Roughly forty percent
  4. Roughly fifty percent
Answer: B

34. What investment have restaurant owners made to address noise?

  1. Hiring security guards
  2. Sound-dampening barriers and landscaping
  3. Moving to new locations
  4. Reducing menu prices
Answer: B

35. What noise level did the Maple Street resident record at 1 AM?

  1. Above fifty decibels
  2. Above sixty decibels
  3. Above seventy decibels
  4. Above eighty decibels
Answer: C

36. The word 'cripple' in the restaurant owners' statement is closest in meaning to:

  1. Strengthen
  2. Severely damage
  3. Improve
  4. Support
Answer: B

37. What does the restaurant owners' press conference criticize?

  1. The noise levels are too low to measure
  2. The council did not consult the hospitality sector
  3. Fines are too low
  4. The ordinance takes effect too soon
Answer: B

38. How does the resident newsletter compare the recorded noise level?

  1. To a library
  2. To a vacuum cleaner running outside the bedroom window
  3. To a whisper
  4. To ocean waves
Answer: B

39. What fundamental conflict do these three texts illustrate?

  1. The city budget debate
  2. The tension between commercial activity and residential quality of life
  3. Public transportation funding
  4. School curriculum reform
Answer: B

40. Based on the texts, what can be inferred about the council's process?

  1. They conducted extensive public consultation
  2. They adopted the ordinance without involving hospitality representatives
  3. They held a referendum on the issue
  4. They deferred the decision indefinitely
Answer: B

Standardized Testing Reform

Education Department Policy Brief Beginning next academic year, standardized tests will be shortened by thirty percent, and the emphasis on timed sections will be reduced. Schools will be encouraged to use multiple measures — including portfolios, teacher assessments, and project-based evaluations — alongside test scores. The goal is to reduce student anxiety while maintaining accountability.
University Admissions Officers' Joint Letter We have relied on standardized test scores for decades because they provide a common benchmark across thousands of high schools with vastly different grading standards. Reducing the weight of these tests, while well-intentioned, will make fair comparisons between applicants more difficult. We request that raw scores continue to be reported, even if the time limits are relaxed.
High School Teacher Opinion Piece I've administered these tests for fifteen years, and I can tell you the stress they cause is real. I've had students in tears before exams, convinced their entire future depends on one morning's performance. The reform doesn't go far enough. If we're serious about holistic assessment, we should make tests optional, not just shorter.

41. By what percentage will standardized tests be shortened?

  1. Twenty percent
  2. Twenty-five percent
  3. Thirty percent
  4. Forty percent
Answer: C

42. What alternative assessment methods does the policy brief mention?

  1. Only multiple-choice tests
  2. Portfolios, teacher assessments, and project-based evaluations
  3. Oral exams only
  4. Physical fitness tests
Answer: B

43. Why do university admissions officers value standardized tests?

  1. They are easy to grade
  2. They provide a common benchmark across different schools
  3. They are legally required
  4. They predict future earnings
Answer: B

44. What concern do admissions officers express about the reform?

  1. Test scores will become too high
  2. Fair comparisons between applicants will become more difficult
  3. The tests will become too expensive
  4. More students will apply
Answer: B

45. How long has the teacher been administering standardized tests?

  1. Ten years
  2. Twelve years
  3. Fifteen years
  4. Twenty years
Answer: C

46. The word 'holistic' in the teacher's opinion is closest in meaning to:

  1. Narrow
  2. Comprehensive, considering the whole picture
  3. Outdated
  4. Simplified
Answer: B

47. What does the teacher argue should happen to tests?

  1. They should be lengthened
  2. They should be made optional, not just shorter
  3. They should remain exactly as they are
  4. They should be administered by universities directly
Answer: B

48. What request do admissions officers make?

  1. Eliminate all testing
  2. Continue reporting raw scores even with relaxed time limits
  3. Increase test difficulty
  4. Remove all time limits from tests
Answer: B

49. How does the teacher's perspective differ from the education department's?

  1. The teacher opposes all testing while the department supports reform
  2. The teacher believes the reform doesn't go far enough
  3. The teacher is less informed about the issue
  4. They have identical views
Answer: B

50. What common ground exists across all three texts?

  1. They all want to eliminate testing completely
  2. They all acknowledge that standardized testing needs some form of change
  3. They all oppose any reform
  4. They agree on the exact reforms needed
Answer: B

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