MET Reading Practice Test 4 — Grammar, Single-Text & Multiple-Text With Answers

Free MET Reading practice test 4: 20 grammar questions, 2 reading passages (10 questions) and 2 multiple-text sets (20 questions) — all 50 questions with the answer key and explanations.

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The complete Reading Practice Test 4 in the official MET structure: Grammar (20 questions), single-text reading (2 passages, 10 questions) and multiple-text reading (2 sets, 20 questions) — 50 questions in 65 minutes.

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Part 1 — Grammar (20 questions)

Each sentence has a missing word or phrase. Choose the best option to complete the sentence.

1. By March next year, the construction company _____ the new hospital wing.

  1. completes
  2. will complete
  3. will have completed
  4. is completing
Answer: C

Why: Future perfect is used for an action that will be finished by a specific future time.

2. If the government _____ stricter emissions standards, air quality would improve dramatically.

  1. enforces
  2. enforced
  3. had enforced
  4. would enforce
Answer: B

Why: Second conditional uses past simple in the if-clause for hypothetical present/future.

3. The manuscript, _____ in the author's own handwriting, fetched millions at auction.

  1. wrote
  2. writing
  3. written
  4. was written
Answer: C

Why: Past participle 'written' acts as a reduced passive relative clause.

4. My colleague inquired whether the files _____ to the client yet.

  1. sent
  2. had been sent
  3. are sent
  4. will sent
Answer: B

Why: Reported speech shifts present perfect passive to past perfect passive.

5. The manager values both efficiency _____ creativity in her team members.

  1. or
  2. nor
  3. but
  4. and
Answer: D

Why: 'Both...and' is the correct correlative conjunction pair.

6. _____ of the restaurants in this neighborhood offer outdoor seating.

  1. Each
  2. Much
  3. Little
  4. Some
Answer: D

Why: 'Some' correctly quantifies a portion of countable plural restaurants.

7. The park _____ we used to play as children has been turned into a shopping mall.

  1. which
  2. where
  3. that
  4. what
Answer: B

Why: 'Where' is the relative adverb for places.

8. The CEO denied _____ any knowledge of the accounting irregularities.

  1. having
  2. to have
  3. have
  4. had
Answer: A

Why: 'Deny' is followed by a gerund.

9. This route is _____ congested during rush hour than the coastal highway.

  1. as congested
  2. more congested
  3. the most congested
  4. congested
Answer: B

Why: Comparative 'more congested' is needed for comparing two routes.

10. The judge ordered that the defendant _____ in custody until the hearing.

  1. remains
  2. will remain
  3. remain
  4. remained
Answer: C

Why: Subjunctive requires the base form 'remain' after 'ordered that'.

11. We need to _____ the proposal before submitting it to the board.

  1. look into
  2. go through
  3. come across
  4. put off
Answer: B

Why: 'Go through' means 'examine carefully' in this context.

12. Scarcely _____ the building when the fire alarm activated.

  1. I entered
  2. did I enter
  3. had I entered
  4. I had entered
Answer: C

Why: 'Scarcely...when' uses inversion with past perfect.

13. If she _____ the invitation earlier, she could have attended the ceremony.

  1. receives
  2. received
  3. had received
  4. would receive
Answer: C

Why: Third conditional requires past perfect in the if-clause.

14. The concert tickets _____ out within minutes of going on sale online.

  1. sold
  2. were sold
  3. are selling
  4. have sold
Answer: B

Why: Passive voice is needed — the tickets were sold by the vendor.

15. He asked me what time the last train _____.

  1. leaves
  2. left
  3. is leaving
  4. will leave
Answer: B

Why: Reported speech shifts present simple to past simple.

16. I can't imagine _____ in a city without public transportation.

  1. live
  2. lived
  3. to live
  4. living
Answer: D

Why: 'Imagine' is followed by a gerund.

17. Seldom _____ such dedication and professionalism in an entry-level employee.

  1. I have seen
  2. have I seen
  3. I saw
  4. did I saw
Answer: B

Why: 'Seldom' at the start triggers subject-auxiliary inversion.

18. The new phone model is noticeably _____ than its predecessor.

  1. light
  2. lighter
  3. lightest
  4. more light
Answer: B

Why: Comparative 'lighter' is needed with 'than' for comparison.

19. There's _____ point in continuing the discussion if neither side is willing to compromise.

  1. few
  2. many
  3. little
  4. some
Answer: C

Why: 'Little' is used with uncountable nouns to express a negative meaning.

20. The doctor suggested that he _____ his salt intake to manage his blood pressure.

  1. reduces
  2. reduce
  3. reduced
  4. reducing
Answer: B

Why: Subjunctive requires the base form 'reduce' after 'suggested that'.

Part 2 — Single-text reading (10 questions)

The human gut microbiome — the vast community of bacteria, viruses, and fungi living in our digestive system — has emerged as one of the most promising frontiers in medical research. Scientists now estimate that these microorganisms, which outnumber human cells by a factor of ten to one, influence far more than digestion. Studies have linked gut bacteria composition to mental health conditions including depression and anxiety, autoimmune disorders such as rheumatoid arthritis, and even the efficacy of cancer treatments. A 2023 clinical trial found that patients who received fecal microbiota transplants alongside immunotherapy were significantly more likely to respond to treatment than those who received immunotherapy alone. However, the field faces substantial challenges. The relationship between specific bacterial strains and health outcomes is extraordinarily complex, and 'probiotic' supplements sold commercially often fail to match the strains studied in clinical settings. Regulatory agencies are now grappling with how to classify and oversee microbiome-based therapies, which fall somewhere between drugs, supplements, and tissue transplants under existing frameworks.

21. What is the primary focus of this passage?

  1. The history of digestive medicine
  2. The gut microbiome and its potential health implications
  3. The dangers of probiotic supplements
  4. How to prepare for a colonoscopy
Answer: B

22. According to the passage, what conditions have been linked to gut bacteria?

  1. Only digestive disorders
  2. Mental health, autoimmune disorders, and cancer treatment response
  3. Only autoimmune disorders
  4. Heart disease exclusively
Answer: B

23. What did the 2023 clinical trial investigate?

  1. The effectiveness of probiotics for weight loss
  2. Fecal microbiota transplants combined with immunotherapy for cancer
  3. The link between diet and sleep quality
  4. Antibiotics for gut infections
Answer: B

24. The word 'efficacy' in the passage is closest in meaning to:

  1. Cost
  2. Effectiveness
  3. Availability
  4. Popularity
Answer: B

25. What regulatory challenge does the passage identify?

  1. Probiotics are too expensive to regulate
  2. Microbiome therapies don't fit neatly into existing product categories
  3. There are too few companies to regulate
  4. International cooperation is impossible
Answer: B
Museum curators worldwide are engaged in a contentious debate about the repatriation of artifacts acquired during the colonial era. On one side, institutions like the British Museum maintain that their collections serve a universal educational mission, arguing that artifacts are safer and accessible to more visitors in major global museums. On the other, nations such as Nigeria, Greece, and Egypt contend that these objects were taken without consent and belong to the cultures that created them. The debate has intensified as technological advances have made high-resolution 3D scanning and digital reconstruction widely available. Some museums have proposed a middle ground: returning original artifacts while retaining detailed digital replicas for display. In 2023, the University of Cambridge became one of the first major institutions to return looted Benin Bronzes to Nigeria, a decision that was widely praised by cultural heritage organizations. Critics of wholesale repatriation warn that emptying encyclopedic museums would fragment historical narratives that benefit from cross-cultural comparison. However, public opinion surveys increasingly show support for returning artifacts to their countries of origin, particularly when clear evidence of looting exists.

26. What debate does the passage primarily address?

  1. Whether museums should charge admission
  2. The repatriation of artifacts acquired during colonial times
  3. The use of digital technology in exhibitions
  4. The funding of cultural institutions
Answer: B

27. What argument do institutions like the British Museum make?

  1. Artifacts should be destroyed
  2. Their collections serve a universal educational mission
  3. All artifacts belong in their countries of origin
  4. Museums should only display local art
Answer: B

28. What compromise solution does the passage describe?

  1. Selling artifacts to private collectors
  2. Returning originals while keeping digital replicas
  3. Moving all artifacts to one central museum
  4. Destroying disputed artifacts
Answer: B

29. The word 'fragmenting' in the passage is closest in meaning to:

  1. Uniting
  2. Breaking into pieces
  3. Strengthening
  4. Preserving
Answer: B

30. What does the passage indicate about public opinion on repatriation?

  1. Most people oppose it
  2. Support is growing, especially when looting evidence exists
  3. Public opinion is evenly split
  4. The public is unaware of the issue
Answer: B

Part 3 — Multiple-text reading (20 questions)

Mandatory Overtime Policy

Company-Wide Memo Due to unprecedented order volumes this quarter, all production staff will be required to work an additional eight hours per week for the next six weeks. Overtime will be compensated at one and a half times the standard hourly rate. Employees with medical or family circumstances may apply for exemption through their supervisor by this Friday.
Union Representative Statement The company's unilateral decision to impose mandatory overtime violates the collective bargaining agreement we signed last year. Our contract clearly states that any schedule changes affecting more than five percent of the workforce require union consultation. We have filed a grievance and demand immediate negotiations.
Employee Breakroom Conversation (Shared Online) They say overtime is optional in the memo, but my supervisor told our team that anyone who doesn't volunteer will 'face consequences.' I have two young kids and can't work sixty-hour weeks. The exemption process is a joke — three people on my shift applied and all were denied with no explanation.

31. How many extra hours per week does the memo require?

  1. Four
  2. Six
  3. Eight
  4. Ten
Answer: C

32. What overtime compensation rate does the memo offer?

  1. Standard rate
  2. One and a half times the standard
  3. Double the standard rate
  4. Time and a quarter
Answer: B

33. Why does the union object to the overtime policy?

  1. The pay rate is too low
  2. The policy was imposed without required union consultation
  3. Overtime should never be mandatory
  4. The union opposes all overtime
Answer: B

34. What does the employee claim about the exemption process?

  1. It worked smoothly for everyone
  2. Three people applied and were all denied without explanation
  3. It was never announced
  4. Only managers can apply
Answer: B

35. The word 'unilateral' in the union statement is closest in meaning to:

  1. Jointly decided
  2. One-sided without agreement
  3. Carefully planned
  4. Unanimously approved
Answer: B

36. How long is the mandatory overtime expected to last?

  1. Two weeks
  2. Four weeks
  3. Six weeks
  4. Eight weeks
Answer: C

37. What reason does the memo give for the overtime requirement?

  1. Staff shortages
  2. Equipment upgrades
  3. Unprecedented order volumes
  4. Management restructuring
Answer: C

38. What contrast exists between the memo and the employee's experience?

  1. The memo mentions an exemption process, but employees say applications are denied
  2. The memo gives different pay rates
  3. The memo discusses different departments
  4. The memo was written in a different language
Answer: A

39. What action has the union taken?

  1. Called a strike
  2. Filed a grievance and demanded negotiations
  3. Accepted the policy
  4. Requested higher wages
Answer: B

40. Based on the three texts, what can be concluded about workplace communication?

  1. It is transparent and effective
  2. There is a gap between official policy and actual implementation
  3. The union and management agree completely
  4. Employees are satisfied with the process
Answer: B

AI-Generated Art Controversy

Art Competition Announcement We are pleased to announce that the winner of this year's national digital art competition is 'Synthetic Dawn,' created using an AI image generator. The judges praised its 'haunting originality and technical brilliance.' This marks the first time an AI-assisted work has won a major art prize in this country, and we celebrate the expansion of creative tools.
Artist Community Open Letter Awarding a prize to AI-generated imagery is an insult to human artists who spend years honing their craft. These generators are trained on millions of copyrighted images scraped from the internet without consent. This is not creativity — it is automated plagiarism dressed as innovation. We demand that future competitions exclude AI-generated work.
Technology Columnist Opinion The outrage from traditional artists mirrors every technological shift in art history. Photographers were once told their work wasn't 'real art.' Digital tools faced the same criticism. The question isn't whether AI belongs in art but how we credit the human collaborators — the programmers, the prompt engineers, and the artists whose work trained the model.

41. What title won the national digital art competition?

  1. Digital Dawn
  2. Synthetic Dawn
  3. Artificial Beauty
  4. Machine Dreams
Answer: B

42. How did the judges describe the winning work?

  1. Conventional and safe
  2. Haunting originality and technical brilliance
  3. Amateurish but promising
  4. Controversial and divisive
Answer: B

43. What is the artists' main objection to the award?

  1. The prize money was too high
  2. AI generators use copyrighted images without consent
  3. The competition was too small
  4. Only one winner was chosen
Answer: B

44. What historical comparison does the technology columnist make?

  1. AI art is like cave painting
  2. Photographers were once told their work wasn't real art
  3. Sculptors opposed painting
  4. Film was rejected by theaters
Answer: B

45. The word 'scraped' in the open letter is closest in meaning to:

  1. Carefully selected
  2. Collected without permission
  3. Purchased legally
  4. Destroyed
Answer: B

46. What does the technology columnist suggest should happen?

  1. AI art should be banned entirely
  2. Human collaborators should be properly credited
  3. Art competitions should be canceled
  4. Only traditional art should be recognized
Answer: B

47. What action does the artist community demand?

  1. More prize money for artists
  2. Excluding AI-generated work from future competitions
  3. Expanding the competition to more categories
  4. Merging the competition with others
Answer: B

48. How does the competition announcement frame AI-assisted art?

  1. As a threat to creativity
  2. As an expansion of creative tools to be celebrated
  3. As a temporary trend
  4. As inferior to human-made art
Answer: B

49. What fundamental disagreement do the texts reveal?

  1. Whether the competition should exist at all
  2. Whether AI-generated work constitutes legitimate art
  3. Whether artists should be paid
  4. Whether digital art is valid
Answer: B

50. According to the columnist, what question should be the focus?

  1. How to ban AI from competitions
  2. How to credit human collaborators in AI art
  3. How to replace human artists
  4. How to sell more AI art
Answer: B

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