The complete Reading Practice Test 4 in the official MET structure: Grammar (20 questions), single-text reading (2 passages, 10 questions) and multiple-text reading (2 sets, 20 questions) — 50 questions in 65 minutes.
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Part 1 — Grammar (20 questions)
Each sentence has a missing word or phrase. Choose the best option to complete the sentence.
1. By March next year, the construction company _____ the new hospital wing.
- completes
- will complete
- will have completed
- is completing
Why: Future perfect is used for an action that will be finished by a specific future time.
2. If the government _____ stricter emissions standards, air quality would improve dramatically.
- enforces
- enforced
- had enforced
- would enforce
Why: Second conditional uses past simple in the if-clause for hypothetical present/future.
3. The manuscript, _____ in the author's own handwriting, fetched millions at auction.
- wrote
- writing
- written
- was written
Why: Past participle 'written' acts as a reduced passive relative clause.
4. My colleague inquired whether the files _____ to the client yet.
- sent
- had been sent
- are sent
- will sent
Why: Reported speech shifts present perfect passive to past perfect passive.
5. The manager values both efficiency _____ creativity in her team members.
- or
- nor
- but
- and
Why: 'Both...and' is the correct correlative conjunction pair.
6. _____ of the restaurants in this neighborhood offer outdoor seating.
- Each
- Much
- Little
- Some
Why: 'Some' correctly quantifies a portion of countable plural restaurants.
7. The park _____ we used to play as children has been turned into a shopping mall.
- which
- where
- that
- what
Why: 'Where' is the relative adverb for places.
8. The CEO denied _____ any knowledge of the accounting irregularities.
- having
- to have
- have
- had
Why: 'Deny' is followed by a gerund.
9. This route is _____ congested during rush hour than the coastal highway.
- as congested
- more congested
- the most congested
- congested
Why: Comparative 'more congested' is needed for comparing two routes.
10. The judge ordered that the defendant _____ in custody until the hearing.
- remains
- will remain
- remain
- remained
Why: Subjunctive requires the base form 'remain' after 'ordered that'.
11. We need to _____ the proposal before submitting it to the board.
- look into
- go through
- come across
- put off
Why: 'Go through' means 'examine carefully' in this context.
12. Scarcely _____ the building when the fire alarm activated.
- I entered
- did I enter
- had I entered
- I had entered
Why: 'Scarcely...when' uses inversion with past perfect.
13. If she _____ the invitation earlier, she could have attended the ceremony.
- receives
- received
- had received
- would receive
Why: Third conditional requires past perfect in the if-clause.
14. The concert tickets _____ out within minutes of going on sale online.
- sold
- were sold
- are selling
- have sold
Why: Passive voice is needed — the tickets were sold by the vendor.
15. He asked me what time the last train _____.
- leaves
- left
- is leaving
- will leave
Why: Reported speech shifts present simple to past simple.
16. I can't imagine _____ in a city without public transportation.
- live
- lived
- to live
- living
Why: 'Imagine' is followed by a gerund.
17. Seldom _____ such dedication and professionalism in an entry-level employee.
- I have seen
- have I seen
- I saw
- did I saw
Why: 'Seldom' at the start triggers subject-auxiliary inversion.
18. The new phone model is noticeably _____ than its predecessor.
- light
- lighter
- lightest
- more light
Why: Comparative 'lighter' is needed with 'than' for comparison.
19. There's _____ point in continuing the discussion if neither side is willing to compromise.
- few
- many
- little
- some
Why: 'Little' is used with uncountable nouns to express a negative meaning.
20. The doctor suggested that he _____ his salt intake to manage his blood pressure.
- reduces
- reduce
- reduced
- reducing
Why: Subjunctive requires the base form 'reduce' after 'suggested that'.
Part 2 — Single-text reading (10 questions)
The human gut microbiome — the vast community of bacteria, viruses, and fungi living in our digestive system — has emerged as one of the most promising frontiers in medical research. Scientists now estimate that these microorganisms, which outnumber human cells by a factor of ten to one, influence far more than digestion. Studies have linked gut bacteria composition to mental health conditions including depression and anxiety, autoimmune disorders such as rheumatoid arthritis, and even the efficacy of cancer treatments. A 2023 clinical trial found that patients who received fecal microbiota transplants alongside immunotherapy were significantly more likely to respond to treatment than those who received immunotherapy alone. However, the field faces substantial challenges. The relationship between specific bacterial strains and health outcomes is extraordinarily complex, and 'probiotic' supplements sold commercially often fail to match the strains studied in clinical settings. Regulatory agencies are now grappling with how to classify and oversee microbiome-based therapies, which fall somewhere between drugs, supplements, and tissue transplants under existing frameworks.
21. What is the primary focus of this passage?
- The history of digestive medicine
- The gut microbiome and its potential health implications
- The dangers of probiotic supplements
- How to prepare for a colonoscopy
Why: The passage surveys what gut bacteria may influence, from mental health to cancer treatment, and the obstacles facing microbiome medicine, so the microbiome and its health implications are its focus.
22. According to the passage, what conditions have been linked to gut bacteria?
- Only digestive disorders
- Mental health, autoimmune disorders, and cancer treatment response
- Only autoimmune disorders
- Heart disease exclusively
Why: Conditions linked to gut bacteria include depression and anxiety, autoimmune disorders such as rheumatoid arthritis and the response to cancer treatment, so the claim is broader than digestion alone.
23. What did the 2023 clinical trial investigate?
- The effectiveness of probiotics for weight loss
- Fecal microbiota transplants combined with immunotherapy for cancer
- The link between diet and sleep quality
- Antibiotics for gut infections
Why: The 2023 trial tested whether faecal microbiota transplants improved results when given with immunotherapy to cancer patients, finding a better response than immunotherapy on its own.
24. The word 'efficacy' in the passage is closest in meaning to:
- Cost
- Effectiveness
- Availability
- Popularity
Why: Efficacy refers to how well a treatment works, so effectiveness is the closest equivalent; availability, cost and popularity are separate considerations from whether something actually helps patients.
25. What regulatory challenge does the passage identify?
- Probiotics are too expensive to regulate
- Microbiome therapies don't fit neatly into existing product categories
- There are too few companies to regulate
- International cooperation is impossible
Why: Regulators struggle because microbiome treatments sit between drugs, supplements and tissue transplants, so they do not fit neatly into existing product categories and oversight stays unclear.
Museum curators worldwide are engaged in a contentious debate about the repatriation of artifacts acquired during the colonial era. On one side, institutions like the British Museum maintain that their collections serve a universal educational mission, arguing that artifacts are safer and accessible to more visitors in major global museums. On the other, nations such as Nigeria, Greece, and Egypt contend that these objects were taken without consent and belong to the cultures that created them. The debate has intensified as technological advances have made high-resolution 3D scanning and digital reconstruction widely available. Some museums have proposed a middle ground: returning original artifacts while retaining detailed digital replicas for display. In 2023, the University of Cambridge became one of the first major institutions to return looted Benin Bronzes to Nigeria, a decision that was widely praised by cultural heritage organizations. Critics of wholesale repatriation warn that emptying encyclopedic museums would fragment historical narratives that benefit from cross-cultural comparison. However, public opinion surveys increasingly show support for returning artifacts to their countries of origin, particularly when clear evidence of looting exists.
26. What debate does the passage primarily address?
- Whether museums should charge admission
- The repatriation of artifacts acquired during colonial times
- The use of digital technology in exhibitions
- The funding of cultural institutions
Why: The passage sets out the dispute over artifacts taken during colonial rule and weighs calls for their return against museums' arguments for keeping them, so repatriation is the central debate.
27. What argument do institutions like the British Museum make?
- Artifacts should be destroyed
- Their collections serve a universal educational mission
- All artifacts belong in their countries of origin
- Museums should only display local art
Why: Institutions such as the British Museum argue that their collections serve a universal educational mission, claiming artifacts are safer and reach more visitors in major global museums.
28. What compromise solution does the passage describe?
- Selling artifacts to private collectors
- Returning originals while keeping digital replicas
- Moving all artifacts to one central museum
- Destroying disputed artifacts
Why: The compromise proposed is to send original artifacts home while keeping detailed digital replicas on display, which answers claims of ownership without emptying the galleries entirely.
29. The word 'fragmenting' in the passage is closest in meaning to:
- Uniting
- Breaking into pieces
- Strengthening
- Preserving
Why: Fragmenting means breaking something into separate pieces, so the warning is that scattering collections would split narratives that depend on comparison; uniting and preserving are the opposite of the word.
30. What does the passage indicate about public opinion on repatriation?
- Most people oppose it
- Support is growing, especially when looting evidence exists
- Public opinion is evenly split
- The public is unaware of the issue
Why: Public opinion surveys increasingly favour returning objects to their countries of origin, particularly where looting can be clearly evidenced, so support is growing rather than evenly divided or absent.
Part 3 — Multiple-text reading (20 questions)
Mandatory Overtime Policy
Due to unprecedented order volumes this quarter, all production staff will be required to work an additional eight hours per week for the next six weeks. Overtime will be compensated at one and a half times the standard hourly rate. Employees with medical or family circumstances may apply for exemption through their supervisor by this Friday.
The company's unilateral decision to impose mandatory overtime violates the collective bargaining agreement we signed last year. Our contract clearly states that any schedule changes affecting more than five percent of the workforce require union consultation. We have filed a grievance and demand immediate negotiations.
They say overtime is optional in the memo, but my supervisor told our team that anyone who doesn't volunteer will 'face consequences.' I have two young kids and can't work sixty-hour weeks. The exemption process is a joke — three people on my shift applied and all were denied with no explanation.
31. How many extra hours per week does the memo require?
- Four
- Six
- Eight
- Ten
Why: The memo requires eight extra hours each week, so the smaller figures mentioned would fall well short of the weekly increase the company is asking staff to work.
32. What overtime compensation rate does the memo offer?
- Standard rate
- One and a half times the standard
- Double the standard rate
- Time and a quarter
Why: The memo promises overtime at one and a half times the standard rate, the common time-and-a-half arrangement, rather than plain pay, double time or time and a quarter.
33. Why does the union object to the overtime policy?
- The pay rate is too low
- The policy was imposed without required union consultation
- Overtime should never be mandatory
- The union opposes all overtime
Why: The union objects on procedural grounds: the policy was imposed without the consultation its agreement requires, rather than because the rate is too low or because it opposes overtime in principle.
34. What does the employee claim about the exemption process?
- It worked smoothly for everyone
- Three people applied and were all denied without explanation
- It was never announced
- Only managers can apply
Why: The employee reports that three colleagues applied for exemption and were all refused with no explanation, which sits oddly with the memo's claim that exemptions are available.
35. The word 'unilateral' in the union statement is closest in meaning to:
- Jointly decided
- One-sided without agreement
- Carefully planned
- Unanimously approved
Why: Unilateral means decided by one side alone, without the agreement of the other, so jointly decided and unanimously approved describe the opposite of the union's complaint.
36. How long is the mandatory overtime expected to last?
- Two weeks
- Four weeks
- Six weeks
- Eight weeks
Why: The mandatory overtime is expected to run for six weeks, presented as a temporary surge period rather than a lasting change to working hours for staff.
37. What reason does the memo give for the overtime requirement?
- Staff shortages
- Equipment upgrades
- Unprecedented order volumes
- Management restructuring
Why: The memo blames unprecedented order volumes for the extra hours, so staff shortages, equipment upgrades and management restructuring are not the official explanations it gives.
38. What contrast exists between the memo and the employee's experience?
- The memo mentions an exemption process, but employees say applications are denied
- The memo gives different pay rates
- The memo discusses different departments
- The memo was written in a different language
Why: The memo describes an exemption route for staff with genuine difficulties, yet employees say applications were refused without reasons, revealing a gap between written policy and what happens in practice.
39. What action has the union taken?
- Called a strike
- Filed a grievance and demanded negotiations
- Accepted the policy
- Requested higher wages
Why: The union has lodged a formal grievance and demanded negotiations over the policy, stopping short of industrial action such as a strike and rejecting the terms as they stand.
40. Based on the three texts, what can be concluded about workplace communication?
- It is transparent and effective
- There is a gap between official policy and actual implementation
- The union and management agree completely
- Employees are satisfied with the process
Why: Taken together the texts show official policy announcing flexibility while employees describe refusals and unions describe being ignored, so a gap exists between stated policy and actual implementation.
AI-Generated Art Controversy
We are pleased to announce that the winner of this year's national digital art competition is 'Synthetic Dawn,' created using an AI image generator. The judges praised its 'haunting originality and technical brilliance.' This marks the first time an AI-assisted work has won a major art prize in this country, and we celebrate the expansion of creative tools.
Awarding a prize to AI-generated imagery is an insult to human artists who spend years honing their craft. These generators are trained on millions of copyrighted images scraped from the internet without consent. This is not creativity — it is automated plagiarism dressed as innovation. We demand that future competitions exclude AI-generated work.
The outrage from traditional artists mirrors every technological shift in art history. Photographers were once told their work wasn't 'real art.' Digital tools faced the same criticism. The question isn't whether AI belongs in art but how we credit the human collaborators — the programmers, the prompt engineers, and the artists whose work trained the model.
41. What title won the national digital art competition?
- Digital Dawn
- Synthetic Dawn
- Artificial Beauty
- Machine Dreams
Why: The winning entry in the national digital art competition was titled Synthetic Dawn, the name the organisers announced publicly once the result was revealed to contestants.
42. How did the judges describe the winning work?
- Conventional and safe
- Haunting originality and technical brilliance
- Amateurish but promising
- Controversial and divisive
Why: Judges described the winning piece as showing haunting originality and technical brilliance, praise that goes well beyond the lukewarm or dismissive assessments suggested by the remaining answers.
43. What is the artists' main objection to the award?
- The prize money was too high
- AI generators use copyrighted images without consent
- The competition was too small
- Only one winner was chosen
Why: Artists object that the generators behind such images were trained on copyrighted work scraped from the internet without the creators' consent, which they see as the heart of the injustice.
44. What historical comparison does the technology columnist make?
- AI art is like cave painting
- Photographers were once told their work wasn't real art
- Sculptors opposed painting
- Film was rejected by theaters
Why: The columnist recalls that photographers were once told their work was not real art, an analogy used to suggest that hostility to new media is a recurring pattern rather than a verdict on AI.
45. The word 'scraped' in the open letter is closest in meaning to:
- Carefully selected
- Collected without permission
- Purchased legally
- Destroyed
Why: Scraped means gathered automatically from the web without permission, so the claims that images were carefully selected or legally purchased both misstate how the training data was obtained.
46. What does the technology columnist suggest should happen?
- AI art should be banned entirely
- Human collaborators should be properly credited
- Art competitions should be canceled
- Only traditional art should be recognized
Why: The columnist argues the practical question is how to credit the human collaborators whose work feeds AI output, rather than banning the technology or abolishing competitions.
47. What action does the artist community demand?
- More prize money for artists
- Excluding AI-generated work from future competitions
- Expanding the competition to more categories
- Merging the competition with others
Why: The artist community wants AI-generated entries excluded from future competitions, a demand for clear boundaries between human and machine work rather than for larger prizes or extra categories.
48. How does the competition announcement frame AI-assisted art?
- As a threat to creativity
- As an expansion of creative tools to be celebrated
- As a temporary trend
- As inferior to human-made art
Why: The competition announcement treats AI-assisted work as an exciting expansion of the creative toolkit and something to be celebrated, a stance the artists' open letter sharply rejects.
49. What fundamental disagreement do the texts reveal?
- Whether the competition should exist at all
- Whether AI-generated work constitutes legitimate art
- Whether artists should be paid
- Whether digital art is valid
Why: The texts disagree fundamentally over whether machine-generated images count as legitimate art, with organisers celebrating the new tools and the artists rejecting work produced with them.
50. According to the columnist, what question should be the focus?
- How to ban AI from competitions
- How to credit human collaborators in AI art
- How to replace human artists
- How to sell more AI art
Why: The columnist says attention should go to how human collaborators are credited in AI-generated art, a question of attribution rather than of prohibition or replacement.