The complete Reading Practice Test 8 in the official MET structure: Grammar (20 questions), single-text reading (2 passages, 10 questions) and multiple-text reading (2 sets, 20 questions) — 50 questions in 65 minutes.
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Part 1 — Grammar (20 questions)
Each sentence has a missing word or phrase. Choose the best option to complete the sentence.
1. The rescue team _____ for survivors throughout the night after the earthquake struck.
- searches
- searched
- was searching
- has searched
Why: Past simple is needed for a completed action after the earthquake.
2. If he _____ more carefully, he wouldn't have missed the critical deadline.
- plans
- planned
- had planned
- would plan
Why: Third conditional requires past perfect in the if-clause.
3. The photographs _____ by the drone provided crucial evidence in the investigation.
- captured
- capturing
- were captured
- had captured
Why: Past participle 'captured' acts as a reduced passive relative clause.
4. The receptionist confirmed that the package _____ the previous morning.
- arrives
- arrived
- has arrived
- had arrived
Why: Reported speech shifts past simple to past perfect.
5. _____ the CEO nor the board members were aware of the security breach until Friday.
- Both
- Either
- Neither
- Not only
Why: 'Neither...nor' is the correct correlative conjunction pair.
6. _____ of the candidates possessed the technical skills required for the position.
- Every
- Each
- Both
- Few
Why: 'Few' is used with plural countable nouns and plural verb.
7. The lawyer _____ closing argument was most persuasive won the mock trial competition.
- who
- whom
- which
- whose
Why: 'Whose' is the possessive relative pronoun connecting lawyer to their argument.
8. He regretted _____ his former colleague so harshly during the meeting.
- to criticize
- criticize
- criticizing
- criticized
Why: 'Regret' is followed by a gerund for past actions.
9. The newer model consumes _____ electricity than any other appliance in its class.
- the least
- much
- least
- less
Why: 'Less' is the comparative form needed with 'than'.
10. The policy mandates that every employee _____ annual data privacy training.
- completes
- complete
- completed
- completing
Why: Subjunctive requires the base form 'complete' after 'mandates that'.
11. The volunteers helped to _____ supplies to families affected by the flood.
- give out
- give up
- give in
- give off
Why: 'Give out' is a phrasal verb meaning 'distribute'.
12. Only when the final report was released _____ the full extent of the financial losses.
- the shareholders understood
- understood the shareholders
- did the shareholders understand
- the shareholders did understand
Why: 'Only when' at the start triggers subject-auxiliary inversion.
13. She _____ a book about Arctic exploration when she received the grant for her own expedition.
- reads
- was reading
- has been reading
- had been reading
Why: Past perfect continuous shows an ongoing action leading up to another past event.
14. If I were in your position, I _____ the job offer without hesitation.
- accepted
- would accept
- will accept
- accept
Why: Second conditional uses 'would + base form' in the main clause.
15. The artifacts _____ in the museum's climate-controlled vault are over two thousand years old.
- storing
- store
- stored
- are stored
Why: Past participle 'stored' acts as a reduced passive relative clause.
16. The student asked the professor whether the exam _____ the following Monday.
- is
- will be
- had been
- would be
Why: Reported speech shifts 'will' to 'would' for future-in-the-past.
17. They considered _____ to a smaller office to reduce overhead costs.
- move
- moving
- to move
- moved
Why: 'Consider' is followed by a gerund.
18. So intense _____ that several runners collapsed before the finish line.
- the heat was
- was the heat
- did the heat
- the heat did
Why: 'So intense' at the start triggers subject-verb inversion with 'was'.
19. The quicker we resolve this dispute, _____ for both parties involved.
- the better
- better
- the best
- best
Why: Double comparative: 'the quicker..., the better...'
20. The committee proposed that the outdated regulations _____ repealed entirely.
- are
- were
- be
- being
Why: Subjunctive requires the base form 'be' after 'proposed that'.
Part 2 — Single-text reading (10 questions)
21. What concern does this passage mainly address?
- The history of fashion design
- The environmental impact of fast fashion and efforts toward circular fashion
- How to sew your own clothes
- The popularity of luxury brands
22. What percentage of garments are discarded within a year of purchase?
- Forty percent
- Fifty percent
- Sixty percent
- Seventy percent
23. According to the Ellen MacArthur Foundation, what happens every second?
- One garment is sold
- One garbage truck of textiles is landfilled or incinerated
- A new fashion brand launches
- A million garments are produced
24. The word 'staggering' in the passage is closest in meaning to:
- Small
- Astonishingly large
- Predictable
- Manageable
25. What has the European Union proposed regarding textiles?
- Banning all synthetic fabrics
- Requiring recycled content and recyclability by 2030
- Nationalizing the fashion industry
- Eliminating all clothing exports
26. What is the central theme of this passage?
- The history of NASA
- Space tourism, its promise, and its environmental concerns
- How to become an astronaut
- The rivalry between tech billionaires
27. What is the approximate starting price for a Virgin Galactic suborbital flight?
- $100,000
- $250,000
- $500,000
- $1 million
28. According to the study, what could space tourism increase within four decades?
- Ocean temperatures by one degree
- Global stratospheric temperatures by one degree Celsius
- CO2 levels by ten percent
- The number of active satellites by fifty percent
29. The word 'moratorium' in the passage is closest in meaning to:
- Acceleration
- Complete legalization
- Temporary prohibition
- Financial incentive
30. How do industry advocates counter environmental concerns?
- By denying rockets produce any emissions
- By arguing the small number of launches makes impact negligible
- By promising to switch to electric rockets immediately
- By claiming climate change is not real
Part 3 — Multiple-text reading (20 questions)
Vaccination Mandate for School Entry
31. Which diseases are listed in the vaccination mandate?
- COVID-19 only
- Measles, mumps, rubella, diphtheria, and polio
- Influenza and hepatitis
- Chickenpox and tetanus
32. What type of exemption is still allowed under the new directive?
- Religious exemptions
- Philosophical exemptions
- Medical exemptions
- Personal belief exemptions
33. What action does the parents' rights organization plan?
- Accepting the directive without objection
- Pursuing legal action on constitutional grounds
- Encouraging all parents to vaccinate
- Running for political office
34. What threshold does the pediatrician mention for herd immunity against measles?
- Eighty-five percent
- Ninety percent
- Ninety-five percent
- Ninety-nine percent
35. How many children were hospitalized in last year's outbreaks?
- Three
- Five
- Eight
- Twelve
36. The word 'conscientious' in the parents' rights statement is closest in meaning to:
- Medical
- Religious
- Based on personal moral conviction
- Scientific
37. What argument does the pediatrician use to support the mandate?
- It increases government revenue
- It protects vulnerable children who cannot be vaccinated
- It reduces healthcare costs for hospitals
- It is required by international treaty
38. What is the central disagreement between the texts?
- Whether vaccines work at all
- Whether parental choice or public health should take precedence
- Whether schools should exist
- Whether doctors are trustworthy
39. When does the new directive take effect?
- Immediately
- Next school year
- In two years
- It has already taken effect
40. Based on the pediatrician's blog, what can be inferred about unvaccinated children?
- They are immune to all diseases
- They were the ones hospitalized in last year's outbreaks
- They had medical exemptions approved
- They are not affected by policy changes
Right to Disconnect Legislation
41. What is the maximum fine for violating the Right to Disconnect law?
- Five thousand euros
- Ten thousand euros
- Fifteen thousand euros
- Twenty thousand euros
42. Companies with how many employees must establish a written policy?
- Twenty or more
- Fifty or more
- One hundred or more
- Two hundred or more
43. How long do companies have to establish their policy?
- One month
- Two months
- Three months
- Six months
44. What practical concern does the business federation raise?
- The fines are too low
- Cross-time-zone communication creates legal ambiguity
- Employees will work too few hours
- The law doesn't apply to small businesses
45. What does the union post say about the law?
- It is perfect and needs no changes
- It isn't perfect but sends a clear message against constant availability
- It should be repealed immediately
- It only benefits managers
46. The word 'enacted' in the ministry announcement is closest in meaning to:
- Rejected
- Passed into law
- Debated
- Delayed
47. What problem does the union post describe experiencing?
- Not getting enough emails
- Losing Sundays to 'urgent' emails that could have waited
- Being paid too little for overtime
- Having no access to work messages on weekends
48. What is the business federation advising its members?
- Ignore the law completely
- Seek legal counsel
- Fire all remote workers
- Relocate to another country
49. What cultural issue does the union post identify?
- Employees are not working hard enough
- The culture of constant availability is exhausting and unsustainable
- Managers are too lenient
- Workers have too much vacation time
50. What common theme connects the three texts?
- The benefits of globalization
- The balance between employer needs and employee well-being regarding after-hours communication
- The history of labor unions
- The technical aspects of email servers