TEAS 7 › Mock tests › Full Mock Test 3
All 170 questions of Full Mock Test 3 in one page: every question, the correct answer (marked ✓, bold checkbox marks are the answer key), and a full explanation. The exam itself is timed and section-locked here; this page is for study and review.
Key ideas & details, craft & structure, integration of knowledge & ideas.
Thunderstorms begin inside a tall cloud whose top rises far above the freezing level. Inside that cloud, rising air carries water droplets upward, where they freeze into ice crystals and small hailstones. As the crystals and hailstones collide and rub against one another, they exchange electric charge: the lighter ice crystals carry positive charge to the top of the cloud, while the heavier hailstones leave negative charge concentrated near the bottom. The separation of charge builds an electric field between the cloud, the ground, and other clouds. When the field grows strong enough to overcome the resistance of the air, a jagged channel of ionized air, the lightning bolt, carries current in a series of rapid steps. The bolt heats the air around it to roughly five times the temperature of the sun's surface, and that sudden expansion of superheated air explodes outward as thunder. Because light travels almost instantly while sound crawls along at about a third of a kilometer per second, the delay between the flash and the rumble tells a listener how far away the storm is.
Q1 According to the passage, where does negative charge collect inside a thunderstorm cloud?
A. At the very top of the cloud.
B. In the air around the cloud.
C. On the ground beneath the cloud.
D. Near the bottom of the cloud. ✓
The passage says the lighter ice crystals carry positive charge to the top of the cloud, while the heavier hailstones leave negative charge concentrated near the bottom, so D is the stated location. A is where the positive charge collects. B and C describe regions outside the cloud that never hold the negative charge.
Most caves begin with rain, a surprising fact because water seems too soft to carve rock. Rain absorbs carbon dioxide from the air and from decaying plants in the soil, becoming a weak carbonic acid. Seeping through cracks in limestone, this dilute acid slowly dissolves the rock and widens the cracks into passages. Where dissolving happens faster, large chambers open beneath the water table; where the water table later drops, the chambers empty and become dry. Cave decoration comes next. Water carrying dissolved calcium carbonate drips from the ceiling, and each drop leaves behind a grain of mineral. Stalactites grow downward from the ceiling like stone icicles, while stalagmites rise from the floor where the drops land. A stalactite may grow only a millimeter in a decade, so the largest ones are older than most human cities. The same process can take a few thousand years or as many as several million. Either way, a cave is a slow photograph of weather working on stone.
Q2 Which new finding, if real, would most weaken the claim that stalactites grow extremely slowly?
A. Caves formed in limestone are found on every continent.
B. Dripping water inside one cave contains more minerals in winter than in summer.
C. Some cave ceilings have no stalactites hanging from them at all.
D. Stalactites in one cave were measured to grow noticeably thicker within a single year. ✓
The passage supports the slow-growth claim with the example of a millimeter per decade, so measurable thickening within a single year would directly contradict that rate. The other options concern location, water chemistry, or the absence of stalactites, none of which speak to growth speed.
Lewis Latimer was born in 1848 to parents who had escaped slavery, and he began his working life as an office boy at a patent law firm in Boston, where he taught himself mechanical drawing by watching the draftsmen. His skill earned him a promotion to head draftsman, and in 1876 he drew the patent figures for Alexander Graham Bell's telephone application, work that helped secure the patent just hours before a rival filing. Latimer later joined a lighting company in New York, where he wrote the first popular book on electric lighting and supervised the installation of electric streetlights in New York, Philadelphia, and London. His most lasting contribution was the carbon filament, a cheap, long-lasting thread inside the light bulb that made electric light practical for ordinary homes. He also held patents for a device that improved railroad cars and for a method of making carbon filaments more reliably. Latimer never stopped learning; he took night classes in French and drafting throughout his career, and he continued inventing until his death in 1928.
Q3 In the passage, the term head draftsman most nearly means
A. a person who supervises the office mail room.
B. a person who sells copies of patent documents.
C. a person who inspects completed buildings.
D. a person in charge of preparing technical drawings. ✓
The passage says Latimer's skill earned him a promotion to head draftsman, the person in charge of preparing the technical drawings the firm produced. Mail supervision, selling patent papers, and inspecting buildings are different jobs.
That summer, twelve-year-old Toby spent his Saturdays behind the projection booth of the Sunset Drive-In, learning the trade from Mr. Delgado, who had run the machine for thirty-eight years. The booth smelled of dust, popcorn oil, and hot lamps. Mr. Delgado showed Toby how the reels were loaded in a precise order, how the carbon arc lamp burned brighter than the sun, and how a single skipped frame could make the whole picture stutter. On the last Saturday of August, the owners posted a sign: the drive-in would close at the end of the month, and the land would become a storage yard. Toby expected Mr. Delgado to be angry. Instead, the old projectionist threaded the final reel slowly, patted the machine, and said, 'It gave people a place to rest their eyes together. That is not nothing.' Toby said nothing, but he watched the beam of light carry the picture out across the dark field of parked cars and decided that the story was like the machine: delicate, hot, and worth protecting. He took one of the old film canisters home, empty, and kept it on his desk.
Q4 Which attitude does Toby's thinking at the end of the passage best reflect?
A. Old machines are obsolete and should be replaced quickly.
B. The drive-in was worth protecting even after it closed for good. ✓
C. The owners were right to sell the land for storage.
D. Films are only entertainment and leave nothing behind.
Toby watches the beam carry the picture across the cars and decides the story is like the machine: delicate, hot, and worth protecting. He then keeps the empty canister as a keepsake. This points to the idea that the drive-in mattered, not that it was obsolete, a wise sale, or merely entertainment.
Each kidney contains about a million tiny filters called nephrons, and together the two kidneys process roughly 180 liters of blood plasma every day. Blood enters a nephron through a tangled knot of capillaries called the glomerulus, where pressure forces water and small dissolved molecules out of the blood and into a collecting cup, the Bowman's capsule. Cells and large proteins are too big to pass, so they stay in the bloodstream. The filtered fluid, now called filtrate, then travels along a long tubule where the body reclaims what it still needs. Glucose, amino acids, and most of the water are reabsorbed back into the blood, which is why a healthy person's urine contains almost no sugar. Wastes that are not reabsorbed, chiefly urea from protein breakdown and excess salts, continue down the tubule and join the urine. The tubules also fine-tune the body's balance of sodium, potassium, and acid. When kidney function declines, wastes build up in the blood and fluid accumulates in the tissues, which is why advanced kidney disease produces swelling and fatigue long before other symptoms appear.
Q5 Why does the passage end with a description of swelling and fatigue?
A. to explain how kidney disease is treated in hospitals.
B. to list the organs that surround the kidneys.
C. to describe how nephrons are counted.
D. to connect declining kidney function with the symptoms of swelling and fatigue. ✓
The last sentence links reduced kidney function to a buildup of wastes and fluid, producing swelling and fatigue, so it explains the outward signs of advanced disease. Treatment, surrounding organs, and counting nephrons are not discussed.
The sense of taste begins on the tongue, where clusters of cells called taste buds sit inside small bumps. Each taste bud holds receptor cells that respond to one of five basic tastes: sweet, salty, sour, bitter, and umami, the savory taste of proteins. When food dissolves in saliva, chemicals reach the buds, receptors fire, and signals travel along nerves to the brain. Yet the tongue alone cannot tell the difference between an apple and a pear, which is where smell comes in. As you chew, aromatic molecules drift up the back of the throat into the nose, and the brain blends the taste signals with these smell signals. That is why food seems bland when you have a stuffy nose, and why a hot meal tastes different from the same meal cold, since heat releases more aromas. Taste buds also turn over quickly, replacing themselves every week or two, which is why a burnt tongue recovers in days. Bitter is the most sensitive of the five tastes, a chemical warning system that helped early humans avoid toxic plants.
Q6 Based on the passage, which meal would most likely be tasted most strongly?
A. A cold sandwich eaten while the nose is blocked.
B. A plain cracker eaten immediately after waking up.
C. A sweet dessert eaten while the tongue is still recovering from a burn.
D. A hot, aromatic dish eaten while the nose is clear. ✓
The passage says heat releases more aromas and that the brain blends smell with taste, so a hot aromatic dish eaten with a clear nose combines both advantages. The other choices include a blocked nose, a healing tongue, or a plain food, all conditions the passage says weaken flavor.
Mary Anning was born in 1799 in the seaside town of Lyme Regis, England, where the cliffs along the coast are packed with the fossilized remains of creatures that swam in warm Jurassic seas. Her father took her hunting for curiosities on the beach and taught her to split the soft shale with a hammer. After his death, when Mary was eleven, the family supported itself by selling fossils to collectors, and Mary became the family's best finder. In 1811 she uncovered the skeleton of an ichthyosaur, a marine reptile with a long snout and paddle-like limbs; later she found the first complete plesiosaur and the first pterosaur ever discovered in Britain. Her finds reshaped scientific ideas about the past, proving that the earth had once been inhabited by creatures unlike any alive today. Yet the scientific establishment treated her as an outsider. Because she was a woman and a working-class tradesperson, she was not admitted to the learned societies where gentlemen discussed her specimens, and much of her work was credited to the men who published descriptions of her discoveries. She was honored publicly only late in life, and modern paleontologists regard her as one of the finest fossil hunters who ever lived.
Q7 A scientist today publicly credits an amateur fossil hunter who found a new specimen. Based on the passage, this practice differs most clearly from Anning's treatment because in her time
A. amateurs were not allowed to search the beaches at all.
B. credit for her finds often went to the men who published descriptions of them. ✓
C. every discovery was kept secret from the public.
D. women regularly joined the learned societies.
The passage says much of Anning's work was credited to the men who published descriptions of her discoveries, and she was not admitted to the societies where gentlemen discussed her specimens. Giving public credit to the finder reverses that pattern; the other options contradict the passage.
Each kidney contains about a million tiny filters called nephrons, and together the two kidneys process roughly 180 liters of blood plasma every day. Blood enters a nephron through a tangled knot of capillaries called the glomerulus, where pressure forces water and small dissolved molecules out of the blood and into a collecting cup, the Bowman's capsule. Cells and large proteins are too big to pass, so they stay in the bloodstream. The filtered fluid, now called filtrate, then travels along a long tubule where the body reclaims what it still needs. Glucose, amino acids, and most of the water are reabsorbed back into the blood, which is why a healthy person's urine contains almost no sugar. Wastes that are not reabsorbed, chiefly urea from protein breakdown and excess salts, continue down the tubule and join the urine. The tubules also fine-tune the body's balance of sodium, potassium, and acid. When kidney function declines, wastes build up in the blood and fluid accumulates in the tissues, which is why advanced kidney disease produces swelling and fatigue long before other symptoms appear.
Q8 How does the passage organize information about the kidney?
A. as a comparison of two rival theories of kidney disease.
B. as a chronological history of kidney research.
C. as a step-by-step description of the path fluid takes through the nephron. ✓
D. as a persuasive argument for donating kidneys.
The passage follows the filtrate in order: entry at the glomerulus, collection in the capsule, travel along the tubule, reabsorption, and waste removal. It never compares theories, narrates history, or argues for donation.
The building had been quiet for hours, but Nadia kept her lamp on and her window closed so the neighbors would sleep. Tomorrow she would ride the early bus to the city for the audition, and tonight every flaw in her playing seemed louder than the notes themselves. She had practiced the same passage since September, a run of quick sixteenth notes that her fingers refused to make smooth. Her teacher said the trouble was not her fingers but her fear; the notes knew the way, he insisted, and she only needed to trust them. Nadia lifted the bow, played the passage once more, and this time she did not stop at the awkward spot. She let the melody carry her past it, and the phrase closed cleanly. She played it again, then again, until the difficult run felt like an old friend. When she finally set the violin in its case, the first gray light was showing at the window. She smiled, closed the case, and went to make tea before the long ride.
Q9 The phrase 'her fingers refused to make smooth' primarily conveys that the run felt
A. beyond her control no matter how much she practiced. ✓
B. too simple to hold her interest through the evening.
C. like music that belonged to a different composer.
D. slower than the conductor would allow on stage.
The image of fingers refusing suggests the run resisted her effort despite months of practice since September, so the difficulty felt outside her control. Boredom, borrowed music, and conductor pacing are readings the surrounding context about her struggle does not support.
In 1872, the United States created Yellowstone National Park, the first national park in the world. The idea did not come from a single visionary but from a series of expeditions. In 1870, a group of explorers camped at the junction of two rivers in what is now Wyoming and, around a campfire, discussed whether the region's wonders should be reserved for the public rather than claimed by private owners. The following year, geologist Ferdinand Hayden led a well-funded expedition that mapped the area in detail and returned with photographs and paintings that showed Congress what was at stake. The evidence convinced lawmakers, and President Ulysses S. Grant signed the Yellowstone National Park Protection Act on March 1, 1872. The law set aside more than two million acres of geysers, hot springs, and wildlife as a public park or pleasuring-ground for the benefit and enjoyment of the people. Managing such a place proved difficult, and in 1916 the National Park Service was created to oversee Yellowstone and the parks that followed. Today the park remains a symbol of the idea that some land is worth more preserved than developed.
Q10 The passage quotes the 1872 law's own words, a public park or pleasuring-ground for the benefit and enjoyment of the people. The quotation is most directly used to
A. document the purpose Congress stated when it set the land aside. ✓
B. argue that the park should charge visitors an entrance fee.
C. criticize the explorers for wanting to develop the land.
D. compare the park to a privately owned resort.
The quotation is presented as the language of the law itself, so it records the purpose Congress declared for the land, namely public benefit and enjoyment. The passage does not discuss entrance fees, criticize the explorers' motives, or compare the park to a resort.
From 1892 to 1924, more than twelve million immigrants entered the United States through Ellis Island, a small island in New York Harbor. Most travelers came in steerage, the cheapest class of ship passage, and the crossing could take one to two weeks. At the island, lines of passengers climbed the stairs to the Great Hall, where doctors watched for signs of illness as people walked past, a screening so quick it was called the six-second physical. Each adult was asked roughly thirty questions, including name, occupation, and whether they could read, and inspectors compared the answers with the ship's manifest list. Legal and medical checks had to be passed quickly, because a steerage passenger could not afford to wait while money ran out. About two percent of arrivals were detained, often for medical treatment, and fewer than two percent were turned away. Most processing took three to five hours, and afterward ferries carried people to the mainland. The island closed in 1954 after immigration laws changed in the 1920s, and in 1990 it reopened as a museum.
Q11 Which statement is best supported by the information in the passage?
A. Most immigrants who reached Ellis Island were eventually permitted to enter. ✓
B. The majority of arrivals were detained for medical treatment.
C. Nearly all steerage passengers were turned away.
D. Immigrants had to prove they could read English fluently.
The passage says about two percent of arrivals were detained and fewer than two percent were turned away, so well over ninety percent were admitted, which supports the claim that most immigrants entered. The other statements contradict or greatly exceed the numbers the passage gives.
In 1862, in the middle of the Civil War, Congress authorized the building of a railroad from the Missouri River to the Pacific coast. Two companies took on the task from opposite ends. The Union Pacific built westward across the flat plains, laying track quickly, while the Central Pacific worked eastward through the Sierra Nevada, where crews tunneled through solid granite in brutal conditions. Thousands of workers came from Ireland and, on the Central Pacific, from China, where recruiters sought laborers willing to take on the most dangerous jobs. The two lines raced toward each other, and the government paid each company by the mile of track laid, an incentive that encouraged speed over caution. On May 10, 1869, at Promontory Summit in Utah, the two crews met and drove a golden spike to mark the completion of the first transcontinental railroad. The consequences were swift. A journey that had taken months by wagon was reduced to about a week, freight rates fell sharply, and western towns grew at rates that surprised even their founders. The railroad also opened vast lands to settlement, changed how food and livestock reached eastern cities, and hastened the decline of the buffalo herds and the displacement of Native peoples who had lived on those lands.
Q12 Which group of workers does the passage say took on the most dangerous jobs on the Central Pacific? pilot
A. Irish laborers who crossed the plains.
B. Civil War veterans hired in Missouri.
C. Local farmers along the Sierra Nevada.
D. Chinese laborers brought in by recruiters. ✓
The passage says thousands of workers came from Ireland and, on the Central Pacific, from China, where recruiters sought laborers willing to take on the most dangerous jobs. Only the Chinese laborers are linked in the text to the hiring of workers for the most dangerous work.
Most people picture quicksand as a bottomless pit that swallows whatever steps into it, but the reality is far less dramatic. Quicksand forms where water saturates loose sand, usually along riverbanks, lake edges, or tidal flats. The water lifts the grains apart so that the mixture behaves more like a thick liquid than a solid. Because sand is heavier than water, the mixture is roughly twice as dense as the human body, so a person cannot sink completely; the body floats partway in the soupy sand, much as it floats in seawater. The real danger is not sinking but struggling. Quick, panicked movements churn the mixture and make it thinner, pulling the legs deeper, while slow, patient movements allow the sand to thicken again around the trapped limb. A calm person can lean back to spread their weight, work one leg free at a time, and crawl or roll onto firmer ground. Most deaths blamed on quicksand are actually drownings: an animal or person stuck at low tide is overtaken by rising water. Understanding the physics of the mixture, not the folklore, is what saves lives.
Q13 What happens when a person trapped in quicksand makes slow, patient movements?
A. The mixture becomes thinner and pulls the legs deeper into the sand.
B. The sand thickens again around the trapped limb, allowing the leg to be worked free. ✓
C. The person floats upward and is carried to the surface.
D. The water drains away and the sand hardens like concrete.
The passage explains that panicked movements churn the mixture and make it thinner, while slow, patient movements allow the sand to thicken again around the trapped limb. Only that response helps a person work a leg free; the other options describe sinking or effects the passage does not support.
Nearly every tissue in the body runs on a daily schedule, and the clock that sets the schedule sits deep in the brain. The suprachiasmatic nucleus, a cluster of about twenty thousand neurons, receives light signals from the eyes, and those signals keep the body's internal time close to the rising and setting of the sun. In dim conditions the pineal gland releases melatonin, the hormone that eases the body into sleep. The system is not fixed, however. During adolescence the internal clock shifts later, a phase delay that makes genuinely early bedtimes difficult for teenagers even when they want them. A wave of research on later school start times found that moving the first bell later improved attendance and mood in adolescents whose schedules had been out of step with their internal clocks. The practical lesson is that a habit described as laziness may actually be a biological schedule that conflicts with an early alarm clock.
Q14 According to the passage, the suprachiasmatic nucleus
A. produces the hormone melatonin.
B. relays light signals to the body's clock. ✓
C. is located in the pineal gland.
D. shortens the adolescent clock.
The passage says the suprachiasmatic nucleus receives light signals from the eyes, keeping internal time aligned with the sun. Melatonin comes from the pineal gland, and the nucleus does not shorten the teen clock.
The sense of taste begins on the tongue, where clusters of cells called taste buds sit inside small bumps. Each taste bud holds receptor cells that respond to one of five basic tastes: sweet, salty, sour, bitter, and umami, the savory taste of proteins. When food dissolves in saliva, chemicals reach the buds, receptors fire, and signals travel along nerves to the brain. Yet the tongue alone cannot tell the difference between an apple and a pear, which is where smell comes in. As you chew, aromatic molecules drift up the back of the throat into the nose, and the brain blends the taste signals with these smell signals. That is why food seems bland when you have a stuffy nose, and why a hot meal tastes different from the same meal cold, since heat releases more aromas. Taste buds also turn over quickly, replacing themselves every week or two, which is why a burnt tongue recovers in days. Bitter is the most sensitive of the five tastes, a chemical warning system that helped early humans avoid toxic plants.
Q15 Why does food taste bland when a person has a stuffy nose? pilot
A. Aromatic molecules cannot reach the nose, so the brain receives fewer smell signals. ✓
B. Taste buds stop working entirely during a cold.
C. Saliva production increases and washes the flavor away.
D. The tongue becomes too warm to detect sweet foods.
The passage explains that the brain blends taste signals with smell signals, and that food seems bland when the nose is blocked because aromatic molecules cannot reach it. The other options describe effects on taste buds, saliva, or temperature that the passage never attributes to a stuffy nose.
Marie Curie was born in Warsaw in 1867, when Poland was under Russian rule and women were barred from university study. She saved money working as a governess, then moved to Paris, where she studied physics and mathematics at the Sorbonne, often cold and hungry but first in her class. With her husband Pierre she investigated a puzzling property of the element uranium: it gave off rays that fogged photographic plates even in darkness. In 1898 the couple announced the discovery of two new elements, polonium, named for her homeland, and radium, which they isolated from tons of raw ore in a drafty shed. In 1903 Curie shared the Nobel Prize in Physics, and in 1911 she won the Nobel Prize in Chemistry, the first person ever to win two Nobel Prizes. During the First World War she organized a fleet of mobile X-ray units, called petites Curies, that brought imaging to field hospitals. She died in 1934 of a blood disorder almost certainly caused by her lifelong exposure to radiation, a price paid while the danger was still unknown.
Q16 Based on the passage, which statement about Curie's honors is accurate?
A. She won the Nobel Prize in Chemistry before the Nobel Prize in Physics.
B. She refused the 1911 prize because of her health.
C. She was the first person ever to win two Nobel Prizes. ✓
D. She won both prizes jointly with Pierre in 1903.
The passage states that Curie won the Physics prize in 1903 and the Chemistry prize in 1911, making her the first person ever to win two Nobel Prizes. The chemistry prize came later, nothing says she refused it, and only the first prize was shared with Pierre.
From 1892 to 1924, more than twelve million immigrants entered the United States through Ellis Island, a small island in New York Harbor. Most travelers came in steerage, the cheapest class of ship passage, and the crossing could take one to two weeks. At the island, lines of passengers climbed the stairs to the Great Hall, where doctors watched for signs of illness as people walked past, a screening so quick it was called the six-second physical. Each adult was asked roughly thirty questions, including name, occupation, and whether they could read, and inspectors compared the answers with the ship's manifest list. Legal and medical checks had to be passed quickly, because a steerage passenger could not afford to wait while money ran out. About two percent of arrivals were detained, often for medical treatment, and fewer than two percent were turned away. Most processing took three to five hours, and afterward ferries carried people to the mainland. The island closed in 1954 after immigration laws changed in the 1920s, and in 1990 it reopened as a museum.
Q17 Why did the legal and medical checks at Ellis Island have to be completed quickly? pilot
A. Because the ferry to the mainland left every hour on the hour.
B. Because most passengers had little money and could not afford long delays. ✓
C. Because the Great Hall closed at sunset every day.
D. Because inspectors were paid for each passenger they processed.
The passage states that a steerage passenger could not afford to wait while money ran out, so checks had to be passed quickly. Ferry schedules, closing hours, and payment methods are reasons that never appear anywhere in the passage.
The building had been quiet for hours, but Nadia kept her lamp on and her window closed so the neighbors would sleep. Tomorrow she would ride the early bus to the city for the audition, and tonight every flaw in her playing seemed louder than the notes themselves. She had practiced the same passage since September, a run of quick sixteenth notes that her fingers refused to make smooth. Her teacher said the trouble was not her fingers but her fear; the notes knew the way, he insisted, and she only needed to trust them. Nadia lifted the bow, played the passage once more, and this time she did not stop at the awkward spot. She let the melody carry her past it, and the phrase closed cleanly. She played it again, then again, until the difficult run felt like an old friend. When she finally set the violin in its case, the first gray light was showing at the window. She smiled, closed the case, and went to make tea before the long ride.
Q18 According to Nadia's teacher, the passage gave her trouble because
A. her violin was not tuned before she began to practice.
B. she had not played the notes often enough to memorize them.
C. the piece was written too fast for any violinist to perform.
D. she was afraid, rather than lacking skill in her fingers. ✓
Her teacher states plainly that the trouble was not her fingers but her fear, and that the notes knew the way and she only needed to trust them. Tuning, insufficient practice, and impossible speed are explanations the passage never offers for her difficulty.
Honeybees find flowers, carry the location back to the hive, and tell other workers where the flowers are by dancing. During the waggle dance, a bee runs straight ahead while waggling its abdomen, then loops back to the starting point and repeats. The angle of the straight run relative to the pull of gravity on the vertical comb indicates the direction of the food relative to the sun: a straight run straight up means fly toward the sun, while an angle to the right of vertical means fly that many degrees to the right of the sun. The duration of the waggle run signals distance, so a long run means the food is far away. Food close to the hive is announced by a simpler round dance that carries no direction. For decades researchers debated whether recruits actually used the dance or simply followed the scent of the flowers carried on the dancer's body. In a classic experiment, bees recruited to a feeder the dancer had never visited and that bore no odor, so the dance itself had to supply the information.
Q19 Based on the passage, a bee whose waggle run lasts longer than another bee's is most likely signaling
A. food that is closer to the hive.
B. food that is farther from the hive. ✓
C. food that is sweeter than average.
D. food that is to the left of the sun.
The passage says the duration of the waggle run signals distance, with a long run meaning the food is far away. The other options attach the wrong meaning to duration.
The lymphatic system is the body's second circulatory network, a web of thin vessels that works beside the blood system. Every day, some of the fluid that leaves the capillaries to nourish tissues does not return directly to the blood. The lymphatic vessels collect that fluid, now called lymph, and carry it back toward the chest, where it re-enters the bloodstream near the heart. Along the way the lymph passes through lymph nodes, small bean-shaped filters that trap bacteria, dead cells, and other debris. White blood cells inside the nodes examine the trapped material and, if they find a threat, begin producing antibodies against it, which is why lymph nodes swell during infections. The spleen and the thymus work with this system, and the tonsils and appendix are also parts of it. When lymph vessels are damaged or removed, fluid can accumulate in a limb, a condition called lymphedema that causes persistent swelling. Unlike the heart-driven blood system, lymph moves by the squeeze of nearby muscles and by breathing, which is one reason regular movement helps keep the system working.
Q20 A patient has lymph nodes removed from under one arm during surgery. Based on the passage, the patient is most likely to experience
A. swelling of that arm because lymph can no longer drain normally. ✓
B. a sudden rise in blood pressure in the vessels of that arm.
C. permanent loss of feeling in the fingers of that hand.
D. faster healing of the surgical scar on the arm.
The passage says fluid can accumulate in a limb when lymph vessels are damaged or removed, a condition called lymphedema that causes persistent swelling. Removing nodes under the arm disrupts drainage from that arm, so swelling is the expected result rather than blood pressure change, numbness, or faster healing.
To all shelter staff: This memo updates the morning care procedures for the intake ward. Effective immediately, the morning shift begins at 6:30 a.m. with a walk-through of every kennel and cage. Staff must check each animal's water bowl and refill it before handling food, because a dehydrated animal may refuse to eat. Between 7:00 and 8:00, distribute the morning meals according to the feeding chart posted on the ward door; the chart lists each animal by intake number, and no animal is to receive food intended for another. A dog that refuses its breakfast must be reported to the shift supervisor on the clipboard log before 8:30, along with the amount left uneaten. Cats are not to be given dry food after 8:15, when the medication round begins. During the medication round, only the senior technician may unlock the medicine cabinet; other staff record the doses in the log but do not handle the bottles. An animal showing discharge from the eyes or nose must be moved to the isolation kennels, and staff must wash their hands with the disinfectant at the sink before returning to the ward. The walk-through, feeding, and logging steps must all be finished by 9:00 a.m.
Q21 The memo states that no animal is to receive food intended for another. The main reason for this rule is most likely to
A. make the feeding round take longer so staff stay busy.
B. reduce how much food the shelter must buy each week.
C. keep each animal on the diet and medication schedule listed for it on the chart. ✓
D. ensure every animal eats at the same time of day.
Because the feeding chart lists each animal by intake number and cats are later cut off from dry food when the medication round begins, swapping meals could give an animal the wrong food at the wrong time. The rule protects the diet and medication schedule, not staff workload, cost, or identical feeding times.
For centuries, ships moving between the Atlantic and Pacific oceans had to round the tip of South America, a journey of thousands of extra kilometers through the stormy Drake Passage. The idea of cutting a canal across the narrow Isthmus of Panama dates to the French attempt under Ferdinand de Lesseps in the 1880s, which collapsed after yellow fever and malaria killed thousands of workers. The United States took over the project in 1904, and its success rested on two changes: the decision to build a lock canal with a chain of artificial lakes rather than a sea-level cut, and an aggressive campaign against the mosquitoes that transmitted the diseases, led by the physician William Gorgas. The work was brutally hard; laborers drilled through rock, dredged mud, and operated enormous steam shovels in heat and rain, and thousands died in accidents and illness before the canal opened in 1914. The locks lift ships twenty-six meters to the level of Gatun Lake, and the canal shortened the sea voyage between New York and San Francisco by more than twelve thousand kilometers.
Q22 Which two changes does the passage credit for the success of the American project?
A. sea-level construction and steam shovels.
B. a shorter route through the Drake Passage.
C. Gatun Lake and a widened Drake Passage.
D. a lock canal and mosquito control. ✓
The passage names exactly two changes behind the American success: building a lock canal with artificial lakes instead of a sea-level cut, and the campaign against disease-carrying mosquitoes. Sea-level construction and the Drake Passage were part of the problem, not the solution.
Bessie Coleman was born in 1892 in Texas, the tenth of thirteen children of parents who worked as sharecroppers. She walked four miles to a segregated school, saved money for a year and a half of college, and then moved to Chicago, where she worked as a manicurist. Aviation fascinated her, but American flight schools of that era refused to train women, and especially Black women. Her answer was to learn French and travel to Paris, where she earned her pilot's license in 1921, becoming the first Black woman in the world to do so. She returned home as a barnstormer, performing loops and figure eights at air shows across the country, and she refused to appear at any event that barred Black spectators. She planned to open a flight school for Black students, but in 1926, at age thirty-four, she died when a test flight crashed. Her example outlived her: by the 1940s Black aviators had formed a club that bore her name, and a generation of pilots she never met called her their inspiration.
Q23 What did Bessie Coleman do that made her the first Black woman pilot in the world?
A. She opened a flight school in Chicago before learning to fly.
B. She refused to fly in any air show outside the state of Texas.
C. She learned French and earned her license in Paris in 1921. ✓
D. She taught herself to fly using a borrowed military plane.
The passage states that Coleman learned French, traveled to Paris, and earned her pilot's license there in 1921, becoming the first Black woman in the world to do so. The other options are either unmentioned or contradict the order of events in her career.
Antibiotics are among the most successful drugs ever discovered, yet they are slowly losing their power. When a bacterium divides, it copies its genetic material, and that copying occasionally produces a mutation, a small change in the new copy. Most mutations are harmless, but a rare one can make a bacterium resistant to an antibiotic, meaning the drug no longer harms it. If that bacterium survives and multiplies, its descendants inherit the resistance, and the population of resistant cells grows. The more often antibiotics are used, the more chances bacteria have to encounter them and evolve protection; the drugs do not create resistance on purpose, they simply select for it by killing the vulnerable cells and leaving the few resistant survivors to reproduce. Taking antibiotics for a viral infection speeds this process because the drugs kill harmless bacteria in the body while doing nothing to stop the virus, exposing bacterial populations to the drug without any benefit. For this reason, prescribers now urge patients to finish the full course and to refuse antibiotics for colds.
Q24 Which statement best contrasts how antibiotics affect vulnerable bacteria and resistant bacteria?
A. Resistant bacteria are killed, while vulnerable bacteria multiply.
B. Both types are killed at exactly the same rate.
C. Vulnerable bacteria are killed, while resistant bacteria survive and multiply. ✓
D. Neither type of bacterium is affected by the drug.
The passage contrasts vulnerable cells being killed with resistant survivors being left to reproduce, the mechanism that grows resistance. The other options reverse the effect, claim equal rates, or claim the drug affects neither group.
In a study of coastal wetland restoration, researchers selected twelve former marsh sites that had been drained for agriculture, restored eight of them by reconnecting tidal flow, and left four undisturbed as comparison plots. Over three years they sampled nitrate levels in the water leaving each site and counted breeding bird species each spring. At every sampling date, the restored plots removed nitrate at rates close to those of an intact reference marsh, while the comparison plots showed little change. Bird species richness in the restored sites climbed from an average of three to an average of fourteen species by the third spring. The authors urge caution: the sites lie in one region, the study ran for only three years, and restored wetlands can take decades to approach full function. Still, the pattern was consistent, and the team argues that modest restoration efforts can deliver measurable water-quality and habitat gains within a few years.
Q25 The phrase "removed nitrate at rates close to those of an intact reference marsh" is best described as
A. quantitative language. ✓
B. an opinion.
C. a metaphor.
D. a command.
The phrase reports measured nitrate-removal rates compared with an intact reference marsh, so it is quantitative language drawn from data. It is not an opinion, because it states a measured comparison; it is not a metaphor; and it is not a command.
The demand for women's voting rights in the United States grew out of the antislavery movement, where women had organized petitions and speeches only to be told that politics was not their place. In 1848, reformers met at Seneca Falls, New York, and issued a declaration of rights that included a demand for the ballot, a demand considered so radical that even some supporters tried to delete it. For the next seventy years the campaign advanced by inches: some western states allowed women to vote in state elections, yet federal law still barred them from national races. Suffragists marched, picketed the White House, endured arrest, and went on hunger strikes, while opponents argued that voting would corrupt women or that their husbands already represented them. The turning point came during the First World War, when the contributions of women workers made the old arguments harder to defend. In 1920 the Nineteenth Amendment was ratified, and in the presidential election that followed, more than eight million women cast ballots for the first time.
Q26 Which statement best summarizes what the passage describes?
A. The long campaign that won American women the right to vote. ✓
B. The founding of the major American political parties.
C. The causes and effects of the First World War.
D. The duties of elected officials in state government.
The passage tells how a demand born in 1848 grew through decades of marches and protests into the Nineteenth Amendment and the first national votes for women. Political parties, the war's causes, and officials' duties are not its subject.
The sense of taste begins on the tongue, where clusters of cells called taste buds sit inside small bumps. Each taste bud holds receptor cells that respond to one of five basic tastes: sweet, salty, sour, bitter, and umami, the savory taste of proteins. When food dissolves in saliva, chemicals reach the buds, receptors fire, and signals travel along nerves to the brain. Yet the tongue alone cannot tell the difference between an apple and a pear, which is where smell comes in. As you chew, aromatic molecules drift up the back of the throat into the nose, and the brain blends the taste signals with these smell signals. That is why food seems bland when you have a stuffy nose, and why a hot meal tastes different from the same meal cold, since heat releases more aromas. Taste buds also turn over quickly, replacing themselves every week or two, which is why a burnt tongue recovers in days. Bitter is the most sensitive of the five tastes, a chemical warning system that helped early humans avoid toxic plants.
Q27 According to the passage, which of the five basic tastes is the most sensitive?
A. Sweet.
B. Salty.
C. Sour.
D. Bitter. ✓
The passage states that bitter is the most sensitive of the five tastes and describes it as a chemical warning system that helped early humans avoid toxic plants. The other four tastes are listed but are never described as the most sensitive, so they cannot be the correct answer.
A glacier is a slow-moving river of ice that forms where snow outlasts summer. Winter snowfall must exceed summer melting year after year, and the accumulating snow compresses under its own weight, turning first to dense granular firn and finally to ice. When the ice grows thick enough, it begins to flow downhill under gravity, gliding over the bedrock at speeds that range from a few centimeters to several meters per day. As it moves, the glacier grinds the valley floor, scraping out a U-shaped trough where streams once cut a narrow V. It plucks blocks from the valley walls and carries them along, then drops them far downstream when the ice melts. Where a glacier meets the sea it calves icebergs, and where it retreats it leaves behind ridges of debris called moraines. Today, most of the world's glaciers are shrinking faster than they can be replaced. Scientists monitor their length and mass each year because glaciers store about two-thirds of the planet's fresh water, and their melt water feeds rivers that hundreds of millions of people depend on.
Q28 Which sentence best states the main idea of the passage?
A. Glaciers are moving masses of ice that form from lasting snow, reshape the land, and are now mostly shrinking. ✓
B. Glaciers exist only in the coldest regions of the world and never change in size.
C. Scientists study glaciers mainly to reconstruct the ancient climate of the earth.
D. Most of the world's fresh water is stored in rivers and lakes rather than in ice.
The passage defines glaciers as slow-moving ice formed where snow outlasts summer, describes how they grind valleys and leave moraines, and closes by noting that most are shrinking while storing much of the world's fresh water. That overall focus matches the first option; the others state claims the passage contradicts or never makes.
On a clear day, the sky overhead is blue, yet the sun itself looks white or yellow. The explanation lies in how sunlight behaves as it passes through the atmosphere. Sunlight is a mixture of colors, and air molecules are small enough to scatter some of those colors far more strongly than others. Short wavelengths, especially blue and violet light, bounce off air molecules in every direction, so blue light fills the sky from all angles. Violet is scattered even more than blue, but the eye is less sensitive to it, which is why the sky appears blue rather than violet. Clouds look white because their water droplets are much larger than air molecules and scatter all the colors about equally. At sunrise and sunset, sunlight travels through a thicker layer of atmosphere, so most of the blue is scattered away before the light reaches the eye. The longer red and orange wavelengths survive the longer journey, painting the sky near the horizon red. On Mars, where the atmosphere is thin and dusty, the sky is the opposite: dust particles scatter red light, so Martian skies often appear pink or butterscotch.
Q29 At the end of the passage, the author explains what happens to blue light at sunrise and sunset in order to
A. warn readers that the atmosphere is thinning near the horizon.
B. show why clouds near the horizon look white.
C. account for why the sky near the horizon turns red and orange at those times. ✓
D. explain why the sun looks yellow when it is high in the sky.
The passage explains that a thicker layer of atmosphere at sunrise and sunset scatters most of the blue away while the longer red and orange wavelengths survive, which is why horizon skies turn red. The author states this to account for the sunset colors; the other options describe effects the passage never ties to this explanation.
The liver is the body's largest internal organ and its busiest chemical factory. It sits in the upper right of the abdomen, and nearly every nutrient absorbed from food passes through it first. The liver filters toxins and waste from the blood, breaks down old red blood cells, stores sugar in a form the body can release between meals, and produces bile, a yellow fluid that helps digest fats. Because it receives blood from two sources, the hepatic artery and the portal vein, it can process both oxygen-rich blood and blood freshly loaded with digested food. Perhaps the most remarkable feature of the liver is its ability to regenerate: if disease or injury removes a large portion of the organ, the remaining tissue can grow back to nearly full size within months, a capacity almost unknown elsewhere in the adult human body. Damage often accumulates more slowly than symptoms appear; fatty buildup and scarring can develop for years without pain, which is why routine blood tests that measure liver enzymes are important. Protecting the liver means moderating alcohol, maintaining a healthy weight, and avoiding unnecessary medications, because the organ must process whatever enters the blood.
Q30 According to the passage, the liver sits in which part of the body?
A. In the upper right of the abdomen. ✓
B. In the lower left of the abdomen.
C. Behind the left lung beside the spine.
D. Just beneath the collarbone.
The passage states plainly that the liver sits in the upper right of the abdomen and that nearly every nutrient absorbed from food passes through it first. The other locations never appear in the passage and contradict its description of the organ's position.
To all shelter staff: This memo updates the morning care procedures for the intake ward. Effective immediately, the morning shift begins at 6:30 a.m. with a walk-through of every kennel and cage. Staff must check each animal's water bowl and refill it before handling food, because a dehydrated animal may refuse to eat. Between 7:00 and 8:00, distribute the morning meals according to the feeding chart posted on the ward door; the chart lists each animal by intake number, and no animal is to receive food intended for another. A dog that refuses its breakfast must be reported to the shift supervisor on the clipboard log before 8:30, along with the amount left uneaten. Cats are not to be given dry food after 8:15, when the medication round begins. During the medication round, only the senior technician may unlock the medicine cabinet; other staff record the doses in the log but do not handle the bottles. An animal showing discharge from the eyes or nose must be moved to the isolation kennels, and staff must wash their hands with the disinfectant at the sink before returning to the ward. The walk-through, feeding, and logging steps must all be finished by 9:00 a.m.
Q31 A staff member notices a cat with discharge from its eyes during the morning round. What does the memo require the staff member to do? pilot
A. Feed the cat dry food before the medication round begins.
B. Refill every water bowl and then record the dose.
C. Wait until the shift supervisor arrives and decide together.
D. Move the cat to the isolation kennels and wash hands with the disinfectant before returning to the ward. ✓
The memo directs that any animal showing discharge from the eyes or nose must be moved to the isolation kennels, and that staff must wash with the disinfectant before returning to the ward. Feeding, water checks, and waiting are not the required response for an animal that may be ill.
Most caves begin with rain, a surprising fact because water seems too soft to carve rock. Rain absorbs carbon dioxide from the air and from decaying plants in the soil, becoming a weak carbonic acid. Seeping through cracks in limestone, this dilute acid slowly dissolves the rock and widens the cracks into passages. Where dissolving happens faster, large chambers open beneath the water table; where the water table later drops, the chambers empty and become dry. Cave decoration comes next. Water carrying dissolved calcium carbonate drips from the ceiling, and each drop leaves behind a grain of mineral. Stalactites grow downward from the ceiling like stone icicles, while stalagmites rise from the floor where the drops land. A stalactite may grow only a millimeter in a decade, so the largest ones are older than most human cities. The same process can take a few thousand years or as many as several million. Either way, a cave is a slow photograph of weather working on stone.
Q32 According to the passage, rainwater is able to dissolve limestone because it
A. falls from a great height with great force.
B. contains carbon dioxide absorbed from the air and soil. ✓
C. is warmer than the rock that it touches.
D. carries grains of sand that scrape the stone.
The passage states that rain absorbs carbon dioxide from the air and from decaying plants in the soil, becoming a weak carbonic acid that dissolves limestone. Falling force, warmth, and sand are not part of the explanation the passage gives for the dissolving.
Pool Operations Memo 42: Daily Water-Quality Testing (Effective Immediately). All lifeguards certified after January 1 must perform the morning water tests before the gates open. Begin by collecting a sample from the deep end at elbow depth, away from the return jets. Test for free chlorine and pH using the color-comparison kit kept in the storage office; record both readings in the logbook on the front desk. Free chlorine must read between 1.0 and 3.0 parts per million, and pH must stay between 7.2 and 7.8. If chlorine reads below 1.0, add the measured dose of granular chlorine to the skimmer baskets, wait thirty minutes, and retest before allowing swimmers in. If pH falls outside the acceptable range, treat the water with the appropriate chemical and retest until the reading is stable. Cyanuric acid, which protects chlorine from sunlight, should be checked every Monday and kept under 50 parts per million. Never open the gates with readings outside these ranges; a pool that fails testing stays closed until corrected, and the closing must be reported to the shift supervisor in writing.
Q33 In the final line, the memo uses the phrase open the gates to refer to pilot
A. starting the pump room's evening shutdown.
B. welcoming swimmers for the day's public operation. ✓
C. letting staff enter the storage office.
D. unlocking the parking lot for deliveries.
Throughout the memo, the gates stand for the pool's public opening: testing must be finished before they open, and a pool that fails testing stays closed until corrected. The phrase therefore refers to admitting swimmers for the day, not to pumps, offices, or parking.
From 1892 to 1924, more than twelve million immigrants entered the United States through Ellis Island, a small island in New York Harbor. Most travelers came in steerage, the cheapest class of ship passage, and the crossing could take one to two weeks. At the island, lines of passengers climbed the stairs to the Great Hall, where doctors watched for signs of illness as people walked past, a screening so quick it was called the six-second physical. Each adult was asked roughly thirty questions, including name, occupation, and whether they could read, and inspectors compared the answers with the ship's manifest list. Legal and medical checks had to be passed quickly, because a steerage passenger could not afford to wait while money ran out. About two percent of arrivals were detained, often for medical treatment, and fewer than two percent were turned away. Most processing took three to five hours, and afterward ferries carried people to the mainland. The island closed in 1954 after immigration laws changed in the 1920s, and in 1990 it reopened as a museum.
Q34 The phrase 'six-second physical' is used to emphasize
A. how thorough the medical examination was.
B. the exact number of doctors working in the Great Hall.
C. the speed of the medical screening. ✓
D. the cost of a doctor's visit in the year 1900.
The nickname emphasizes that doctors judged arriving passengers as they walked past, an observation short enough to last only seconds. The passage pairs the phrase with the idea of watching people walk by, not with thoroughness, a count of doctors, or the cost of visits.
Florence Nightingale was born in 1820 to a wealthy English family that expected her to marry and manage a household. Instead, she insisted on training as a nurse, a profession then regarded as the work of the poor and uneducated. In 1854, during the Crimean War, she led a small team of nurses to a military hospital at Scutari, where wounded soldiers were dying of infection, filth, and neglect at an appalling rate. Nightingale found the hospital overcrowded and unsanitary, with inadequate supplies and water. She used her own funds and those of a public subscription to buy soap, towels, and bedding, and she insisted on clean kitchens and laundries. Within months the death rate in the hospital fell sharply. When she returned to England, she published a detailed analysis of army mortality, using statistics and charts that showed most soldiers died of preventable disease rather than battle wounds. In 1860 she used donations from the public to open the Nightingale Training School for nurses in London, the first secular nursing school in the world. She spent the rest of her long life reforming hospitals and public health, and she is remembered as the founder of modern nursing.
Q35 What does the passage mainly describe?
A. The causes of the Crimean War and its most important battles.
B. How Florence Nightingale reformed nursing and became known as the founder of modern nursing. ✓
C. The history of hospitals in England before the year 1850.
D. How statistical charts are used to study modern armies.
The passage traces Nightingale from her decision to train as a nurse, through her reforms at Scutari, her statistical study, and her founding of the first secular nursing school. Its subject is her career and its effect on nursing, not the war's causes, hospital history, or military statistics in general.
To all building staff: This memo updates the fire safety procedure and applies to every floor. If you discover a fire, shout a warning, then call the emergency line from a phone outside the affected room. Do not attempt to fight a large fire; use a fire extinguisher only on a small, contained blaze when the exit is clear behind you. When you hear the alarm, stop what you are doing, turn off any equipment if it is safe to do so, and leave by the nearest stairwell. Never use the elevator during an alarm, because it may stop between floors. Close doors behind you as you leave, since that slows the spread of smoke, and stay low if the corridor is filled with smoke because cleaner air sits near the floor. Walk instead of running, and report to your assembly point in the parking lot, where supervisors count everyone. Do not re-enter the building until the fire marshal declares it safe. The whole drill takes about four minutes, and every practice run imprints the route so that an emergency feels familiar rather than frightening.
Q36 What does the memo say staff should do right after they hear the alarm?
A. Report to the assembly point in the parking lot.
B. Open every door they pass to check for smoke.
C. Close the windows and lock the office door.
D. Stop what they are doing and leave by the nearest stairwell. ✓
The memo instructs staff to stop what they are doing, turn off equipment if it is safe, and leave by the nearest stairwell when the alarm sounds. Reporting to the assembly point comes only after leaving the building, so it is not the first step listed.
Pool Operations Memo 42: Daily Water-Quality Testing (Effective Immediately). All lifeguards certified after January 1 must perform the morning water tests before the gates open. Begin by collecting a sample from the deep end at elbow depth, away from the return jets. Test for free chlorine and pH using the color-comparison kit kept in the storage office; record both readings in the logbook on the front desk. Free chlorine must read between 1.0 and 3.0 parts per million, and pH must stay between 7.2 and 7.8. If chlorine reads below 1.0, add the measured dose of granular chlorine to the skimmer baskets, wait thirty minutes, and retest before allowing swimmers in. If pH falls outside the acceptable range, treat the water with the appropriate chemical and retest until the reading is stable. Cyanuric acid, which protects chlorine from sunlight, should be checked every Monday and kept under 50 parts per million. Never open the gates with readings outside these ranges; a pool that fails testing stays closed until corrected, and the closing must be reported to the shift supervisor in writing.
Q37 Which of the following test results would force the pool to stay closed, according to the memo?
A. Free chlorine of 2.5 parts per million and a pH of 7.5.
B. Cyanuric acid at 40 parts per million.
C. Free chlorine of 0.8 parts per million and a pH of 8.1. ✓
D. A water temperature reading taken at the deep end.
The memo requires free chlorine between 1.0 and 3.0 parts per million and pH between 7.2 and 7.8, and it states that readings outside those ranges keep the pool closed. Chlorine of 0.8 and pH of 8.1 both fall outside the ranges, while the other options are within the limits or are not among the measured tests.
From 1892 to 1924, more than twelve million immigrants entered the United States through Ellis Island, a small island in New York Harbor. Most travelers came in steerage, the cheapest class of ship passage, and the crossing could take one to two weeks. At the island, lines of passengers climbed the stairs to the Great Hall, where doctors watched for signs of illness as people walked past, a screening so quick it was called the six-second physical. Each adult was asked roughly thirty questions, including name, occupation, and whether they could read, and inspectors compared the answers with the ship's manifest list. Legal and medical checks had to be passed quickly, because a steerage passenger could not afford to wait while money ran out. About two percent of arrivals were detained, often for medical treatment, and fewer than two percent were turned away. Most processing took three to five hours, and afterward ferries carried people to the mainland. The island closed in 1954 after immigration laws changed in the 1920s, and in 1990 it reopened as a museum.
Q38 Based on the passage, the main reason Ellis Island closed in 1954 was that
A. immigration laws changed during the 1920s, so the island no longer played its old role. ✓
B. the Great Hall was destroyed by a fire.
C. steerage class was eliminated because it was too expensive.
D. all arriving immigrants were processed on the mainland after 1930.
The passage ties the closing directly to changes in immigration law during the 1920s, which ended the island's role as the main entry point for newcomers. A fire, the cost of steerage, and mainland processing are reasons that never appear in the passage.
Employee Handbook, Section 4: Requesting Time Off. All full-time staff must submit requests for paid time off through the online portal at least fourteen calendar days before the first day of leave. Exceptions are granted only for documented emergencies, and managers must receive a call from the employee before the start of the scheduled shift. Approved requests are recorded on the shared team calendar within two business days. Requests are granted on a first-come, first-served basis, and no more than two employees from the same department may be on leave at one time, except during training weeks, when the limit is one. Paid time off accrues at a rate of one and a half days per month worked, and unused days may be carried over into the next calendar year up to a maximum of ten days. Because the first week of each quarter is inventory week, time off will not be approved during those five working days. Employees who fail to follow this procedure and miss work without an approved request will be marked absent without pay and may face corrective action.
Q39 What does the policy say about unused paid time off? pilot
A. It is lost automatically at the end of each calendar year.
B. It may be sold back to the company at its full cash value.
C. It is converted into extra sick leave for the next year.
D. It may be carried into the next year, up to a maximum of ten days. ✓
The policy says unused days may be carried over into the next calendar year up to a maximum of ten days. Losing them, selling them back, or converting them to sick leave are outcomes the passage never describes, so the carry-over rule is the accurate choice.
The sense of taste begins on the tongue, where clusters of cells called taste buds sit inside small bumps. Each taste bud holds receptor cells that respond to one of five basic tastes: sweet, salty, sour, bitter, and umami, the savory taste of proteins. When food dissolves in saliva, chemicals reach the buds, receptors fire, and signals travel along nerves to the brain. Yet the tongue alone cannot tell the difference between an apple and a pear, which is where smell comes in. As you chew, aromatic molecules drift up the back of the throat into the nose, and the brain blends the taste signals with these smell signals. That is why food seems bland when you have a stuffy nose, and why a hot meal tastes different from the same meal cold, since heat releases more aromas. Taste buds also turn over quickly, replacing themselves every week or two, which is why a burnt tongue recovers in days. Bitter is the most sensitive of the five tastes, a chemical warning system that helped early humans avoid toxic plants.
Q40 The author calls bitter 'a chemical warning system' mainly to explain why
A. some foods are sweetened with extra sugar.
B. bitter perception is so sensitive. ✓
C. taste buds replace themselves every week or two.
D. hot meals release more aromas than cold meals.
The passage links the warning-system idea directly to sensitivity, saying that bitter's role in warning early humans away from toxic plants explains why it is the most sensitive of the five tastes. The other options are details about sweetness, bud replacement, or heat that serve different points.
The Global Positioning System begins far above the earth. A constellation of about thirty satellites circles the planet, each carrying an atomic clock that keeps time to within a few billionths of a second. The satellites broadcast continuous radio signals that carry the time the signal left the satellite and the satellite's position. A receiver on the ground listens for signals from several satellites at once. Because radio waves travel at a fixed speed, the receiver can calculate its distance from each satellite by comparing the time the signal was sent with the time it arrived. If the receiver knows its distance from three satellites, the three distances fix its location, and a fourth satellite corrects for small errors in the receiver's own clock. That is why a device needs a clear view of the sky: walls, roofs, and dense tree cover block the weak signals. The system was built for military navigation, but it now guides ships, tractors, delivery vans, and hikers, and it sets the time on everything from power grids to banking networks.
Q41 According to the passage, why does a GPS receiver need a clear view of the sky?
A. Because the satellites are visible only at night.
B. Because walls, roofs, and dense tree cover block the weak satellite signals. ✓
C. Because the receiver's clock needs sunlight to stay accurate.
D. Because open air makes the radio waves travel faster.
The passage states that walls, roofs, and dense tree cover block the weak signals, which is why a clear view of the sky is needed. Night visibility, sunlight for the clock, and faster open-air travel are ideas the passage does not contain.
The demand for women's voting rights in the United States grew out of the antislavery movement, where women had organized petitions and speeches only to be told that politics was not their place. In 1848, reformers met at Seneca Falls, New York, and issued a declaration of rights that included a demand for the ballot, a demand considered so radical that even some supporters tried to delete it. For the next seventy years the campaign advanced by inches: some western states allowed women to vote in state elections, yet federal law still barred them from national races. Suffragists marched, picketed the White House, endured arrest, and went on hunger strikes, while opponents argued that voting would corrupt women or that their husbands already represented them. The turning point came during the First World War, when the contributions of women workers made the old arguments harder to defend. In 1920 the Nineteenth Amendment was ratified, and in the presidential election that followed, more than eight million women cast ballots for the first time.
Q42 How does the passage trace the development of the suffrage movement?
A. As a comparison of two rival political parties.
B. As a list of voting laws in different states.
C. Chronologically, from its origins to the ratification of the Nineteenth Amendment. ✓
D. As a debate between two leading reformers.
The passage moves from 1848 and Seneca Falls through seventy years of campaigning to the First World War and the 1920 amendment, a purely chronological account. It does not compare parties, list state laws, or stage a debate.
The owl was the size of a coffee cup, a fledgling that had tumbled from a nest in the old cottonwood and lay shivering in the grass, one wing bent at an angle no bird should manage. Theo's father, a wildlife rescuer, examined it with careful hands and pronounced it lucky: no broken bones, only a torn flight feather. 'We cannot keep it,' he said. 'Our job is to make it strong enough to refuse us.' For three weeks they fed the owlet scraps of chicken and watched it grow fierce. It learned to grip a branch, then to hop, then to fly short bursts across the yard. The night before the release, Theo sat in the dark and watched the owl preen its new feather. 'What if it comes back?' he asked. His father shrugged. 'Then we have a very spoiled owl.' In the morning they carried the crate to the cottonwood. The owl blinked at the open door, took a long look at the yard, and lifted off through the branches without once looking back. Theo stood watching until the gray shape vanished into the trees, and he felt proud of a thing he had only helped let go.
Q43 According to the passage, what happens first in the owl's recovery?
A. Theo's father examines the owl and finds no broken bones. ✓
B. The owlet learns to fly short bursts across the yard.
C. The owl preens its new flight feather.
D. The owl takes off through the branches of the cottonwood.
The passage opens with the father examining the fledgling and pronouncing it lucky with only a torn flight feather, so A comes first. B and C describe the later weeks of learning and preening. D is the release at the end of the story.
To all kitchen staff: this memo updates the evening closing procedure and takes effect on the first of the month. After the last customer is served, begin by turning off the flat top and the fryers and allowing them to cool before any surface cleaning is attempted. Next, move all perishable items from the serving line into the walk-in cooler within thirty minutes of closing; never leave dairy, eggs, or prepared salads at room temperature overnight. Wash and sanitize every cutting board and utensil that touched raw meat, using the three-sink method: wash, rinse, then sanitize in the chemical bath for a full sixty seconds. At the end of the shift, wipe down all counters with the blue sanitizer cloths, never the red ones, which are reserved for raw meat areas. Finally, record the cooler temperature on the log sheet, initial the closing checklist, and lock the walk-in. Any item left unlogged in the morning will be treated as a missed step. Questions about this procedure should be directed to the shift supervisor before the first closing under the new rule.
Q44 Which action does the memo require staff to complete within thirty minutes of closing?
A. washing the utensils that touched raw meat.
B. wiping down all counters with the blue cloths.
C. recording the cooler temperature on the log sheet.
D. moving perishable items from the serving line into the walk-in cooler. ✓
The memo explicitly sets a thirty-minute deadline for moving perishable items into the walk-in cooler and forbids leaving dairy, eggs, or salads out overnight. The other tasks are required but no time limit is attached to them.
Each kidney contains about a million tiny filters called nephrons, and together the two kidneys process roughly 180 liters of blood plasma every day. Blood enters a nephron through a tangled knot of capillaries called the glomerulus, where pressure forces water and small dissolved molecules out of the blood and into a collecting cup, the Bowman's capsule. Cells and large proteins are too big to pass, so they stay in the bloodstream. The filtered fluid, now called filtrate, then travels along a long tubule where the body reclaims what it still needs. Glucose, amino acids, and most of the water are reabsorbed back into the blood, which is why a healthy person's urine contains almost no sugar. Wastes that are not reabsorbed, chiefly urea from protein breakdown and excess salts, continue down the tubule and join the urine. The tubules also fine-tune the body's balance of sodium, potassium, and acid. When kidney function declines, wastes build up in the blood and fluid accumulates in the tissues, which is why advanced kidney disease produces swelling and fatigue long before other symptoms appear.
Q45 Which statement best expresses the main idea of the passage about how the kidneys work?
A. The kidneys filter blood and reclaim needed substances while allowing wastes to leave the body in urine. ✓
B. The kidneys manufacture most of the blood that circulates through the body.
C. Healthy urine normally contains large amounts of glucose.
D. Kidney disease produces no symptoms until the kidneys stop completely.
The passage walks through filtration at the glomerulus, reabsorption in the tubules, and the removal of wastes in urine, so the main idea is that kidneys filter and reclaim while excreting waste. The other options directly contradict the text.
Numbers & algebra, measurement & data. On-screen calculator available.
Q1 In 8 years, a patient's son will be 3 times as old as he was 4 years ago. How old is the son now?
A. 12
B. 10 ✓
C. 8
D. 14
Let s be the son's age now. In 8 years: s + 8; 4 years ago: s - 4. The equation s + 8 = 3(s - 4) gives s + 8 = 3s - 12, so 2s = 20 and s = 10. Check: 18 = 3 x 6.
Q2 A triangular garden has sides of 3.5 m, 4 m, and 6.5 m. What is its perimeter?
A. 10
B. 91
C. 14 ✓
D. 7.5
The perimeter is the sum of all three sides: 3.5 + 4 + 6.5 = 14 m. The 7.5 option added only two sides, the 10 option added the 3.5 and 6.5 sides and left out the middle one, and the 91 option multiplied the three side lengths together.
Q3 The table shows a unit's rooms by number of patients: 3 rooms with 1 patient, 5 rooms with 2 patients, and 2 rooms with 3 patients. What is the mean number of patients per room? pilot
A. 2.0
B. 1.9 ✓
C. 1.8
D. 2.1
Total patients: 3 x 1 + 5 x 2 + 2 x 3 = 3 + 10 + 6 = 19, spread across 3 + 5 + 2 = 10 rooms, so the mean is 19 / 10 = 1.9 patients per room. 2.0 grabs the middle room size instead of computing the mean.
Q4 A pharmacy technician earns $48,000 per year and receives a 7.5% raise. What is the new annual salary?
A. 44400
B. 50400
C. 3600
D. 51600 ✓
Multiply the salary by 1.075: $48,000 x 1.075 = $51,600. The $44,400 option subtracted 7.5% instead of adding it, the $3,600 option reported only the raise amount, and the $50,400 option used a 5% raise instead of 7.5%.
Q5 A child is prescribed 300 mg of amoxicillin suspension. The bottle is labeled 250 mg per 5 mL. How many mL should be given?
A. 5
B. 7.5
C. 8
D. 6 ✓
250 mg per 5 mL is 50 mg per mL. A 300 mg dose needs 300 / 50 = 6 mL. 5 mL is the volume for 250 mg; 7.5 mL uses a 40 mg/mL rate; 8 mL uses 37.5 mg/mL.
Q6 Express 17/4 as a mixed number. pilot
A. 4 1/4 ✓
B. 4 3/4
C. 3 1/4
D. 4 1/2
17 divided by 4 is 4 with a remainder of 1, so 17/4 = 4 1/4. The option 4 3/4 uses 3 as the remainder, 3 1/4 divides 17 by 5 instead of 4, and 4 1/2 misstates the fractional remainder.
Q7 Solve for x: 6x - 10 = 44.
A. 6
B. 5.67
C. 9 ✓
D. 54
Add 10 to both sides to get 6x = 54, then divide by 6 to find x = 9. The 54 option stopped at 6x without dividing, the 5.67 option subtracted 10 from 44 instead of adding it, and the 6 option answered with the coefficient of x.
Q8 The sum of a mother's age and her daughter's age is 60. The mother is 4 times as old as the daughter. How old is the daughter?
A. 15
B. 12 ✓
C. 20
D. 48
Let d be the daughter's age. The mother's age is 4d, and d + 4d = 60, so 5d = 60 and d = 12. The daughter is 12 and the mother is 48, which gives a sum of 60 and a mother four times as old as the daughter.
Q9 A cube-shaped storage block has edges of 5 cm. What is its volume in cubic centimeters?
A. 125 ✓
B. 25
C. 100
D. 150
The volume of a cube is the side length cubed: 5 cm x 5 cm x 5 cm = 125 cubic centimeters. Using 5 x 5 = 25 would give only the area of one face, so 125 cubic cm accounts for length, width, and height.
Q10 A pie chart shows a clinic's monthly budget categories. The supplies slice is 25% of the whole chart. How many degrees is the supplies slice? pilot
A. 90 degrees ✓
B. 72 degrees
C. 120 degrees
D. 45 degrees
A full circle is 360 degrees, and the slice is 25% of it: 0.25 x 360 = 90 degrees. 72 degrees comes from 20%; 120 degrees from one-third; 45 degrees from 12.5% - each a different misplaced percent.
Q11 Evaluate: 15 - (8 - 3) x 2.
A. 13
B. 1
C. 8
D. 5 ✓
Work inside the parentheses first: 8 - 3 = 5. Then multiply: 5 x 2 = 10. Finally subtract: 15 - 10 = 5. Following order of operations gives 5, not the values from skipping parentheses.
Q12 A delivery truck uses 12.5 gallons of fuel to travel 287.5 miles. What is the truck's fuel economy in miles per gallon?
A. 25
B. 21
C. 23 ✓
D. 24
Fuel economy is distance divided by fuel used: 287.5 / 12.5 = 23 miles per gallon. At 25 mpg the same fuel would cover 312.5 miles, and at 21 mpg it would cover only 262.5 miles.
Q13 A jug contains 0.75 gallon of cleaning fluid. How many fluid ounces is that? (1 gallon = 128 fluid ounces)
A. 64
B. 96 ✓
C. 84
D. 110
Multiply gallons by the conversion factor: 0.75 x 128 = 96 fluid ounces, which is three quarters of 128. 64 is half a gallon, 84 subtracts 12 instead of taking three quarters, and 110 approximates instead of computing. Recognizing 0.75 as 3/4 makes 128 x 3 / 4 = 96 the quickest path.
Q14 The range of a set of measurements is 23, and the smallest measurement is 9. What is the largest measurement in the set?
A. 14
B. 23
C. 20.5
D. 32 ✓
Range equals largest minus smallest, so the largest is 9 + 23 = 32. The 14 option subtracted the range from the smallest value instead of adding, the 23 option answered with the range itself, and the 20.5 option reported the average of 9 and 32.
Q15 A department spent $1,240 on lab supplies out of a $6,200 monthly supply budget. What percent of the budget was spent?
A. 25%
B. 12.4%
C. 40%
D. 20% ✓
Percent is part divided by whole: 1240 / 6200 = 0.20 = 20%. 25% would require spending 1550, 40% would be 2480, and 12.4% treats the dollar amount as if it were already a percent. Dividing the money spent by the total budget, then converting the decimal to a percent, yields 20%.
Q16 A procedure begins at 10:40 AM and lasts 1 hour 25 minutes. What time does it end?
A. 11:05 AM
B. 12:05 PM ✓
C. 1:05 PM
D. 12:15 PM
Add the duration to the start time: 10:40 AM plus 1 hour is 11:40 AM, then add 25 more minutes, which gives 12:05 PM. The procedure crosses the noon hour, so the end time is 12:05 PM, not an AM time.
Q17 Which value is equal to (2.4 x 10^3) + (6 x 10^2)?
A. 3.0 x 10^2
B. 3.0 x 10^4
C. 2.46 x 10^3
D. 3.0 x 10^3 ✓
Write both terms in standard form: 2.4 x 10^3 = 2,400 and 6 x 10^2 = 600. Adding them gives 3,000, which in scientific notation is 3.0 x 10^3. 3.0 x 10^2 equals only 300, far too small.
Q18 A courier service charges $19.00 for a large parcel and $11.00 for a small parcel. One day it shipped 40 parcels and collected $560.00. How many were large parcels?
A. 15 ✓
B. 18
C. 12
D. 20
Let a be the number of large parcels: 19a + 11(40 - a) = 560, so 19a + 440 - 11a = 560, giving 8a = 120 and a = 15. Check: 15 x 19 + 25 x 11 = 285 + 275 = $560.
Q19 A supply box measures 8 cm by 5 cm by 3 cm. What is the volume of the box?
A. 40
B. 120 ✓
C. 16
D. 158
Volume of a rectangular prism is length x width x height: 8 x 5 x 3 = 120 cubic cm. The 40 option multiplied only two dimensions, the 16 option added the three dimensions, and the 158 option computed the surface area instead of the volume.
Q20 Machine A labels 90 vials per hour and machine B labels 60 vials per hour. Working together, how many minutes will it take to label 450 vials?
A. 180 ✓
B. 150
C. 120
D. 200
Together the machines label 90 + 60 = 150 vials per hour. At that combined rate, 450 vials take 450 / 150 = 3 hours, which equals 180 minutes. 150 minutes is only 375 vials at the combined rate.
Q21 A supply department's monthly cost fell from $840 to $714. What was the percent decrease?
A. 12%
B. 15% ✓
C. 18%
D. 21%
The drop is 840 - 714 = 126. Divide by the original amount: 126 / 840 = 0.15, which equals 15%. The option 12% is about 100.8 of 840, 18% would be a 151.2 drop, and 21% corresponds to a drop of 176.4.
Q22 A warehouse ships 240 packages in a day, and 15% of them go by overnight courier. How many packages go by overnight courier?
A. 24
B. 36 ✓
C. 45
D. 60
15% of 240 means 0.15 x 240 = 36 packages. 24 is 10% of 240, 45 is 18.75% of 240, and 60 is 25%. Converting the percent to a decimal before multiplying, then checking that the answer is smaller than 240, avoids the common decimal-place slips.
Q23 A bag holds 4 red and 6 blue chips. A chip is drawn, its color is noted, and it is returned. Then a second chip is drawn. What is the probability that both chips are blue?
A. 36% ✓
B. 33%
C. 60%
D. 25%
Because the first chip is replaced, both draws use all 10 chips: P(blue twice) = (6/10) x (6/10) = 0.36 = 36%. 33% is the without-replacement result (6/10 x 5/9); 60% is a single draw; 25% squares a one-half probability.
Q24 Four fuel stops on a trip used 8.5, 6.0, 7.5, and 10.0 gallons. What is the mean amount of fuel used per stop?
A. 7.5
B. 8.5
C. 8.0 ✓
D. 7.0
Add the four amounts: 8.5 + 6.0 + 7.5 + 10.0 = 32.0 gallons. Dividing by the number of stops gives 32.0 / 4 = 8.0 gallons per stop. The value 8.5 is just the largest single reading, not the mean.
Q25 A storage room floor measures 8.5 m by 6 m. What is the area of the floor in square meters?
A. 51 ✓
B. 29
C. 102
D. 42.5
Area of a rectangle is length times width: 8.5 x 6 = 51 square meters. 29 is the sum of the sides (perimeter), 102 doubles the area as if counting four sides, and 42.5 multiplies 8.5 by 5. Remembering that area multiplies just two dimensions while perimeter adds all four separates the correct value.
Q26 A 3.75 L container of broth has 2.8 L used for soup. How many liters of broth remain?
A. 1.05
B. 0.95 ✓
C. 0.90
D. 6.55
Subtract the amount used from the total: 3.75 - 2.8 = 0.95 L. The 6.55 option added the amounts instead, the 1.05 option treated 2.8 as 2.7 when borrowing, and the 0.90 option dropped the trailing 5 hundredths and subtracted 2.8 from 3.7.
Q27 On a unit, the ratio of nurses to patients is 2:5. If the unit has 40 patients, how many nurses are on duty?
A. 25
B. 16 ✓
C. 20
D. 8
The ratio 2:5 means 2 nurses for every 5 patients, so nurses = 40 x 2/5 = 16. The 8 option used only the 40 / 5 part, the 20 option assumed a 1:2 ratio, and the 25 option reversed the ratio, treating nurses as 5/8 of the total.
Q28 A 300 mL IV bag holds a 1.5% solution. How many mL of the active ingredient are in the bag?
A. 45
B. 15
C. 4.5 ✓
D. 1.5
A 1.5% solution contains 1.5 mL of active ingredient per 100 mL, so a 300 mL bag holds 3 x 1.5 = 4.5 mL; equivalently, 0.015 x 300 = 4.5. 45 is a decimal-place slip, 15 confuses the percent value with a count, and 1.5 uses only one of the three 100-mL units.
Q29 On a hiking trail map, 1 inch represents 6 miles. A trail measures 3.25 inches on the map. How many miles long is the trail?
A. 19.5 ✓
B. 21.0
C. 18.0
D. 16.25
Each inch on the map is 6 real miles, so 3.25 inches equals 3.25 x 6 = 19.5 miles. The value 16.25 incorrectly multiplies 3.25 by 5, and 21.0 would require 3.5 inches on the map.
Q30 If 5 tablets contain 12.5 mg of a drug, how many mg are in 8 tablets?
A. 16
B. 25
C. 20 ✓
D. 24
Each tablet: 12.5/5 = 2.5 mg. Eight tablets: 8 x 2.5 = 20 mg. 16 and 24 come from unit-rate slips, and 25 rounds the per-tablet dose up.
Q31 On a map with a scale of 1 inch = 25 miles, two towns are 3.5 inches apart. How far apart are the towns in miles?
A. 7.14
B. 71.4
C. 87.5 ✓
D. 97.5
Each inch on the map represents 25 miles, so 3.5 inches is 3.5 x 25 = 87.5 miles. 7.14 divides 25 by 3.5, inverting the scale, 71.4 misreads 3.5 as 2.86, and 97.5 adds 25 to 72.5. Multiplying the measured distance by the scale factor always converts map units to ground units.
Q32 A certificate of deposit earns 2.8% simple interest per year. How much interest does $2,500 earn in 3 years?
A. $210.00 ✓
B. $70.00
C. $225.00
D. $105.00
Simple interest is principal x rate x time: 2,500 x 0.028 x 3 = $210.00. $70.00 is only one year's interest; $225.00 uses a 3% rate; $105.00 uses 1.5 years instead of 3.
Q33 A bar chart shows oranges sold at a market stall: Monday 30, Tuesday 25, Wednesday 35, Thursday 30. What is the total number of oranges sold over the four days? pilot
A. 110
B. 130
C. 115
D. 120 ✓
The total is the sum of the four daily bar values: 30 + 25 + 35 + 30 = 120 oranges. 110 leaves out Thursday, 130 double-counts one day, and 115 misreads Wednesday as 30. Reading each bar's height accurately before adding prevents table-reading errors.
Q34 An order calls for 1.2 mg of a medication that is available as 0.4 mg per 1 mL. How many milliliters should be drawn up?
A. 3 ✓
B. 2
C. 4
D. 2.5
The dose needed is 1.2 mg, and each milliliter provides 0.4 mg, so the volume is 1.2 / 0.4 = 3 mL. Two milliliters would provide only 0.8 mg, and 4 mL would provide 1.6 mg, which is more than ordered.
Q35 A patient's height is 5 feet 9 inches. How many centimeters is that? (1 inch = 2.54 cm, 1 foot = 12 inches)
A. 172.7
B. 175.3 ✓
C. 167.6
D. 180.3
Convert the height fully to inches: 5 x 12 + 9 = 69 inches. Multiply by 2.54 cm per inch: 69 x 2.54 = 175.26, which rounds to 175.3 cm. The option 172.7 is 68 inches, 167.6 is 66 inches, and 180.3 is 71 inches, each a different height.
Q36 A fire station's response coverage is a circular area with a radius of 5 km. Using 3.14 for pi, what is the area of the coverage zone?
A. 78.5 km^2 ✓
B. 31.4 km^2
C. 25.0 km^2
D. 157.0 km^2
The area of a circle is pi times the radius squared: 3.14 x 5 x 5 = 78.5 square kilometers. The value 31.4 uses the radius once instead of squaring it, and 25.0 is just the radius squared with no pi factor.
Q37 A jar holds 6 red, 5 yellow, and 9 blue beads. One bead is drawn at random. What is the probability that it is yellow or blue?
A. 3/10
B. 7/10 ✓
C. 1/4
D. 1/2
There are 6 + 5 + 9 = 20 beads total, and 5 + 9 = 14 that are yellow or blue, so the probability is 14 / 20 = 7 / 10. 3/10 is the red fraction (6/20), 1/4 is yellow only (5/20), and 1/2 comes from miscounting the favorable beads as 10 of 20. Adding only the favorable outcomes and dividing by the total gives the probability.
Q38 A spinner has 5 equal sections: 2 red, 2 blue, and 1 green. What is the probability of landing on red?
A. 25%
B. 40% ✓
C. 50%
D. 20%
Two of the five sections are red, so the probability is 2/5, which equals 0.40 or 40%. The 20% option used the single green section, the 50% option treated the two red sections as half of only the four colored sections, and the 25% option assumed four equal sections.
Anatomy & physiology, biology, chemistry, scientific reasoning.
Q1 A researcher follows smokers and nonsmokers for ten years and records who develops lung disease without assigning anyone to a group. This study design is
A. A randomized controlled trial
B. A double-blind experiment
C. A case study
D. An observational study ✓
Because the researcher only observes and never assigns exposure, this is an observational study, which can reveal association but cannot prove causation. A randomized controlled trial assigns treatments by chance, a double-blind trial hides group membership, and a case study examines a single person in depth.
Q2 A patient loses the ability to contract the muscles of facial expression on one side of the face while all other cranial nerve functions remain intact. Damage to which cranial nerve most directly explains this sign?
A. Trigeminal (V)
B. Glossopharyngeal (IX)
C. Hypoglossal (XII)
D. Facial (VII) ✓
The facial nerve (VII) innervates the muscles of facial expression, so damage to it produces the one-sided weakness typical of Bell's palsy. The trigeminal nerve (V) supplies the jaw muscles and facial sensation, the glossopharyngeal (IX) serves the pharynx and posterior tongue, and the hypoglossal (XII) moves the tongue.
Q3 In a normal (bell-shaped) distribution, approximately what percentage of the data falls within one standard deviation of the mean?
A. 68% ✓
B. 50%
C. 95%
D. 99.7%
The empirical rule for a normal distribution states that about 68% of observations lie within one standard deviation of the mean, about 95% lie within two standard deviations, and about 99.7% lie within three. The 50% value is not a fixed percentage for any standard deviation interval in a normal curve.
Q4 A sperm cell of an animal contains 19 chromosomes. How many chromosomes are present in a somatic (body) cell of the same animal?
A. 9.5
B. 19
C. 38 ✓
D. 76
Gametes are haploid (n), so n equals 19 for this animal. Somatic cells are diploid and contain two chromosome sets, giving 2 times 19, which equals 38 chromosomes in each body cell.
Q5 In bacterial conjugation, one cell transfers a copy of a plasmid to a neighboring cell through which connecting structure?
A. A flagellum
B. An endospore
C. A conjugation pilus ✓
D. A capsule
The conjugation pilus is a hollow, hair-like tube that joins a donor and a recipient bacterium so that DNA, often a plasmid, can be transferred between them. A flagellum provides motility, an endospore is a dormant survival form, and a capsule is a protective outer coat, so none of these transfer DNA between cells.
Q6 Which gland secretes melatonin, the hormone that helps regulate the sleep-wake cycle?
A. Thyroid gland
B. Pineal gland ✓
C. Adrenal gland
D. Parathyroid gland
The pineal gland, located deep in the brain, synthesizes melatonin in response to darkness and helps time the circadian sleep-wake cycle. The thyroid regulates metabolism, the adrenal glands produce stress hormones, and the parathyroid glands control blood calcium.
Q7 Which region of the brain houses the centers that set the basic rhythm of breathing and heart rate?
A. Hypothalamus
B. Cerebrum
C. Cerebellum
D. Medulla oblongata ✓
The medulla oblongata contains autonomic centers that regulate the breathing rhythm and cardiac activity. The cerebellum coordinates movement, the cerebrum handles conscious functions, and the hypothalamus manages temperature and hunger, so the medulla controls the vital rhythms.
Q8 During data analysis, a researcher notices that one participant's heart rate was recorded as 480 beats per minute, a value far outside the 60-100 range of everyone else. What is the most appropriate first step?
A. Re-examine the original record or re-measure the value to check whether it was mistaken ✓
B. Average it together with the other values so it cannot distort the results
C. Discard the entire data set and begin the study again
D. Replace it with the highest value seen in any other participant
An implausible outlier should first be checked against the original records or re-measured, because transcription and equipment errors are common and a valid extreme value should not be dropped without evidence. Averaging it in still allows it to distort the summary, restarting the study wastes the data already collected, and substituting another participant's value fabricates data.
Q9 Which type of cartilage, known for resisting compression and tension, forms the intervertebral discs and the pubic symphysis?
A. Hyaline cartilage
B. Elastic cartilage
C. Articular cartilage
D. Fibrocartilage ✓
Fibrocartilage contains thick bundles of collagen fibers that give it great tensile strength and compressibility, suiting structures that bear heavy loads such as intervertebral discs and the pubic symphysis. Hyaline cartilage covers joint surfaces and forms the fetal skeleton, while elastic cartilage, found in the ear, is more flexible.
Q10 Which type of graph is most appropriate for showing the distribution of a single continuous variable, such as the heights of 200 students?
A. Line graph
B. Pie chart
C. Histogram ✓
D. Scatter plot
A histogram groups continuous data into bins and shows how many values fall within each bin, making it ideal for displaying a distribution such as student heights. Line graphs show change over time, pie charts show parts of a whole, and scatter plots show the relationship between two different variables.
Q11 How many valence electrons does a neutral atom of nitrogen have?
A. 3
B. 5 ✓
C. 7
D. 14
Nitrogen, in group 15 of the periodic table, has five valence electrons in its outer shell. Three is the number of covalent bonds nitrogen typically forms to complete its octet, seven is its atomic number, and fourteen is its most common mass number.
Q12 For the equilibrium reaction N2(g) + 3 H2(g) forming 2 NH3(g), what happens to the position of equilibrium when the pressure is increased by compressing the mixture at constant temperature?
A. It shifts toward reactants
B. It does not change
C. It shifts equally in both directions
D. It shifts toward products ✓
Le Chatelier's principle states that increasing pressure shifts equilibrium toward the side with fewer moles of gas. Here the product side has 2 moles of gas versus 4 moles on the reactant side, so the equilibrium shifts toward ammonia, favoring the forward reaction and relieving the added pressure.
Q13 Which large vein delivers blood from the digestive organs directly to the liver for processing before the blood continues toward the heart?
A. Pulmonary vein
B. Inferior vena cava
C. Aorta
D. Hepatic portal vein ✓
The hepatic portal vein collects blood rich in absorbed nutrients from the stomach, intestines, pancreas, and spleen and delivers it to the liver, which processes and detoxifies the absorbed substances. The pulmonary vein, inferior vena cava, and aorta do not drain the digestive organs into the liver.
Q14 Damage to which region of the brain most characteristically impairs the ability to form new long-term memories while older memories remain intact?
A. Cerebellum
B. Thalamus
C. Medulla oblongata
D. Hippocampus ✓
The hippocampus, deep in the medial temporal lobe, is essential for consolidating new long-term memories; damage characteristically causes anterograde amnesia in which new memories cannot form. The cerebellum coordinates movement, the thalamus relays sensory information, and the medulla controls vital reflexes such as breathing and heart rate.
Q15 At standard temperature and pressure (STP, 0 C and 1 atm), one mole of an ideal gas occupies what volume?
A. 11.2 L
B. 22.4 L ✓
C. 44.8 L
D. 1.0 L
At STP, one mole of any ideal gas occupies 22.4 L, a value derived from the ideal gas law. The 11.2 L figure is half a mole, 44.8 L is two moles, and 1.0 L is far smaller because gases expand to fill their container at standard conditions.
Q16 Which part of the eye changes shape to focus light onto the retina? pilot
A. Cornea
B. Iris
C. Sclera
D. Lens ✓
The lens is a flexible, transparent structure whose curvature is adjusted by the ciliary muscles to focus light sharply on the retina. The cornea refracts light but does not change shape, the iris regulates light entry through the pupil, and the sclera is the protective outer coat, so the lens is correct.
Q17 Which nitrogenous base is present in RNA but not in DNA?
A. Thymine
B. Adenine
C. Uracil ✓
D. Guanine
RNA uses uracil in place of thymine and pairs it with adenine during transcription. Thymine is found in DNA, while adenine and guanine occur in both nucleic acids, so uracil is the base that uniquely identifies RNA.
Q18 A researcher defines aggression in a study as the number of times a child pushes another child during one hour. This measurable definition is called
A. A hypothesis
B. A control variable
C. A confounding variable
D. An operational definition ✓
An operational definition states exactly how a variable is measured, here counting pushes per hour, so that other researchers can reproduce the measurement. A hypothesis is a testable prediction, a control variable is held constant across groups, and a confounding variable is an unmeasured factor that could distort results.
Q19 Which cells of the kidney release renin when blood pressure in the afferent arteriole falls?
A. Podocytes
B. Juxtaglomerular cells ✓
C. Macula densa cells
D. Mesangial cells
Juxtaglomerular cells in the wall of the afferent arteriole secrete renin, which triggers the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone cascade that raises blood pressure. Podocytes form the filtration slits of the glomerulus, macula densa cells monitor sodium chloride in the tubule, and mesangial cells support the glomerular capillaries.
Q20 A medical trial fails to detect a benefit of a new treatment even though the treatment truly is effective. Which type of error has occurred? pilot
A. A type I error
B. A type II error ✓
C. A placebo effect
D. A sampling bias
Failing to detect a real effect, concluding the drug does not work when it actually does, is a type II error, the mistake of accepting a false null hypothesis. A type I error is detecting an effect that is not real, a placebo effect is a response to an inert treatment, and sampling bias distorts who is studied.
Q21 Of the following elements, which one requires the greatest amount of energy to remove its first electron, meaning it has the highest first ionization energy?
A. Na
B. Mg
C. Al
D. Si ✓
First ionization energy generally increases across a period as nuclear charge rises and atomic radius shrinks. Among Na, Mg, Al, and Si, silicon lies farthest to the right and does not show the 3s-to-3p dip seen with aluminum, so it holds its outermost electron most tightly and has the highest first ionization energy.
Q22 Which type of graph is most appropriate for comparing the average yield of five different crop varieties?
A. Line graph
B. Scatter plot
C. Bar graph ✓
D. Pie chart
A bar graph best compares distinct categories such as crop varieties because each bar shows one group's average value. A line graph shows trends across a continuous variable, a scatter plot shows the relationship between two measured variables, and a pie chart shows parts of a whole.
Q23 A bacterial culture grows from 2,000 cells to 2,500 cells. What is the percent increase in the population?
A. 20%
B. 25% ✓
C. 50%
D. 125%
Percent increase equals (new value - original value) divided by the original value, times 100: (2,500 - 2,000) / 2,000 x 100 = 25%. The 125% option compares the new count to the original without removing the original, and 20% and 50% do not match the actual ratio of the gain.
Q24 During skeletal muscle contraction, calcium ions promote cross-bridge formation by
A. breaking apart the actin filaments so myosin can attach
B. binding to troponin, which shifts tropomyosin and exposes the actin binding sites ✓
C. binding directly to the myosin heads to start the power stroke
D. triggering pumping of sodium out of the muscle fiber
Calcium binds to troponin on the thin filament, which moves tropomyosin aside and exposes the actin sites where myosin heads attach. Calcium does not bind myosin heads directly, sodium pumping is a membrane event, and actin is not destroyed, so the troponin-tropomyosin sequence is correct.
Q25 A titration requires 25.0 mL of 0.10 M sodium hydroxide to exactly neutralize 50.0 mL of a hydrochloric acid solution. What is the concentration of the HCl solution?
A. 0.025 M
B. 0.05 M ✓
C. 0.10 M
D. 0.20 M
At the equivalence point the moles of H+ equal the moles of OH-: (0.10 M)(0.0250 L) = CHCl(0.0500 L), so CHCl = 0.0025 moles / 0.0500 L = 0.05 M. Because the acid volume is twice the base volume, the acid must be half as concentrated to contain the same number of moles of reactive ions.
Q26 A student records the number of petals on flowers in a garden: 3, 3, 4, 5, 5, 5, 7. What is the mode of this data set? pilot
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5 ✓
D. 7
The mode is the value that occurs most frequently in a data set. The number 5 appears three times, while 3 appears twice and 4 and 7 appear once each, so the mode is 5. Note that the mean of the seven values is 32/7, about 4.6, which shows the mode can differ from the mean.
Q27 Which tube carries urine from the kidney to the urinary bladder?
A. Urethra
B. Renal pelvis
C. Collecting duct
D. Ureter ✓
Urine formed in the nephrons drains into the renal pelvis and then travels down the ureter, a muscular tube, to the urinary bladder for storage. The urethra carries urine out of the body, and the collecting duct is part of the nephron rather than a tube leading to the bladder.
Q28 Which substance is secreted by type II alveolar cells and reduces surface tension so the alveoli do not collapse at the end of expiration?
A. Mucus
B. Surfactant ✓
C. Serous fluid
D. Histamine
Pulmonary surfactant, a mixture of phospholipids and proteins, lowers the surface tension of the fluid lining the alveoli, preventing collapse and reducing the work of breathing. Mucus traps particles, serous fluid lubricates membranes, and histamine mediates allergic responses, so surfactant is correct.
Q29 During childhood and adolescence, a long bone grows in length because the epiphyseal plate at each end is composed of which tissue, whose cells divide and are gradually replaced by bone?
A. Dense fibrous connective tissue
B. Smooth muscle
C. Adipose tissue
D. Hyaline cartilage ✓
The epiphyseal (growth) plate is a disc of hyaline cartilage whose chondrocytes proliferate and are progressively replaced by bone on the diaphyseal side, lengthening the shaft. Dense fibrous tissue forms ligaments and tendons, smooth muscle lines hollow organs, and adipose tissue stores fat, so none of these drive lengthwise bone growth.
Q30 The liver detoxifies ammonia, a byproduct of protein breakdown, by converting it into a less toxic nitrogenous waste that the kidneys excrete in urine. What is that waste product?
A. Urea ✓
B. Bilirubin
C. Creatinine
D. Glucose
Ammonia is highly toxic to cells, so the liver combines it with carbon dioxide in the urea cycle to form urea, which is far less toxic and is eliminated by the kidneys in urine. Bilirubin is a pigment from hemoglobin breakdown, creatinine is a byproduct of muscle creatine, and glucose is a nutrient rather than a nitrogenous waste.
Q31 During embryonic development, the decision for the bipotential gonads to become testes rather than ovaries is triggered by the activity of which gene located on the Y chromosome?
A. CFTR
B. HBB
C. SRY ✓
D. TP53
The SRY (sex-determining region Y) gene encodes a transcription factor that switches the bipotential embryonic gonad onto the testis pathway. CFTR mutations cause cystic fibrosis, HBB is the beta-globin gene that can carry sickle cell mutations, and TP53 is a tumor suppressor gene, so none of these determine gonadal sex.
Q32 In a eukaryotic cell, the citric acid (Krebs) cycle takes place in which location?
A. Cytoplasm
B. Outer mitochondrial membrane
C. Inner mitochondrial membrane
D. Mitochondrial matrix ✓
The citric acid cycle runs in the mitochondrial matrix, where acetyl-CoA is fully oxidized and carbon dioxide, NADH, FADH2, and ATP are produced by enzymes dissolved in the matrix. Glycolysis occurs in the cytoplasm, the electron transport chain is embedded in the inner mitochondrial membrane, and the outer membrane plays little role in respiration.
Q33 Which set of three small bones lies within the middle ear and forms a chain linking the tympanic membrane to the oval window? pilot
A. Utricle, saccule, and ampullae
B. Malleus, incus, and stapes ✓
C. Tympanic membrane, oval window, and round window
D. Cochlea, semicircular canals, and vestibule
Sound waves vibrate the tympanic membrane, and the malleus, incus, and stapes transmit those vibrations across the middle ear to the oval window. The cochlea, vestibule, and semicircular canals are inner ear structures, and the utricle, saccule, and ampullae are equilibrium receptors, not middle ear bones.
Q34 Which process is an example of a chemical change?
A. Melting ice
B. Boiling water
C. Dissolving sugar in water
D. Rusting of iron ✓
Rusting forms iron oxides, which are new substances with different properties, so the chemical composition of the iron changes. Melting, boiling, and dissolving only alter the physical state or the mixing while the substances themselves remain unchanged.
Q35 A study finds that cities with more ice cream sales also report more heat-related illness. Which conclusion is the most defensible?
A. Ice cream causes heat-related illness.
B. Nurses buy more ice cream in warm hospitals.
C. A third factor, such as hot weather, plausibly links both variables. ✓
D. Heat-related illness causes ice cream sales to rise.
Correlation alone does not prove causation, and warm weather offers a plausible common cause of both higher ice cream sales and more heat illness. The other conclusions assert cause-and-effect directions the study cannot support.
Q36 Which ion is the most abundant positively charged electrolyte inside the intracellular fluid of a typical body cell?
A. Sodium
B. Calcium
C. Magnesium
D. Potassium ✓
Potassium is the dominant intracellular cation, with a concentration near 140 mEq/L inside cells, while sodium dominates the extracellular fluid. The sodium-potassium pump exports sodium and imports potassium to maintain this gradient, which underlies the resting membrane potential of excitable cells.
Q37 Which cells release histamine during allergic reactions, causing vasodilation and increased capillary permeability?
A. Mast cells ✓
B. Natural killer cells
C. Helper T cells
D. Erythrocytes
Mast cells in connective tissue degranulate during allergic and inflammatory responses, releasing histamine that widens blood vessels and allows fluid to leak into tissues, producing swelling and redness. Natural killer cells destroy infected cells, helper T cells coordinate immunity, and erythrocytes transport oxygen.
Q38 According to Mendel's law of independent assortment, alleles of different genes are distributed into gametes independently mainly because of
A. Crossing over during prophase I
B. The random alignment of homologous chromosome pairs during metaphase I of meiosis ✓
C. The separation of sister chromatids during anaphase II
D. DNA replication during the S phase of the cell cycle
Independent assortment arises from the random orientation of homologous chromosome pairs on the spindle during metaphase I, so alleles of genes on nonhomologous chromosomes combine freely into gametes. Crossing over rearranges alleles located on the same chromosome, and the other options describe events unrelated to how different genes sort into gametes.
Q39 Crossing over, which exchanges genetic material between homologous chromosomes, occurs during which stage? pilot
A. Metaphase II of meiosis
B. Anaphase of mitosis
C. Telophase I of meiosis
D. Prophase I of meiosis ✓
In prophase I, homologous chromosomes pair up and swap segments, creating new combinations of alleles. Mitosis has no pairing of homologous chromosomes, metaphase II aligns already-haploid chromosomes, and telophase I ends the first division, so crossing over is confined to prophase I.
Q40 During transcription, which enzyme reads a DNA template and assembles a complementary strand of messenger RNA?
A. RNA polymerase ✓
B. DNA polymerase
C. Helicase
D. Ligase
RNA polymerase binds to a promoter, unwinds the DNA, and builds mRNA by adding RNA nucleotides complementary to the template strand. DNA polymerase copies DNA during replication, helicase separates the strands, and ligase joins DNA fragments, so RNA polymerase performs transcription.
Q41 A solid block has a mass of 24.0 g and a volume of 8.0 mL. What is its density?
A. 3.0 g/mL ✓
B. 0.33 g/mL
C. 32 g/mL
D. 192 g/mL
Density equals mass divided by volume, so 24.0 g divided by 8.0 mL gives 3.0 g/mL. The value 0.33 g/mL comes from dividing volume by mass, and 32 or 192 g/mL come from adding or multiplying the two numbers instead of dividing them.
Q42 Acetic acid (CH3COOH) is classified as a weak acid. When the acid dissolves in water, what proportion of its molecules actually ionize into H+ and CH3COO-?
A. Essentially all of the molecules ionize completely
B. Only a small fraction of the molecules ionize ✓
C. None of the molecules interact with the water
D. The molecules release hydroxide ions instead of protons
A weak acid such as acetic acid reaches an equilibrium in which only a small fraction of molecules donate a proton, so most remain as intact CH3COOH molecules. Strong acids ionize completely in water, bases release hydroxide ions, and even weak acids react measurably with water, making the other statements incorrect.
Q43 Which process is the usual method by which bacteria reproduce?
A. Mitosis
B. Meiosis
C. Binary fission ✓
D. Sporulation
Binary fission is the asexual process in which a bacterial cell duplicates its DNA and divides into two genetically identical cells. Mitosis and meiosis occur in eukaryotic cells, and sporulation is a survival strategy used by some bacteria and fungi rather than the main bacterial reproductive method.
Q44 What is the empirical formula of glucose, which has the molecular formula C6H12O6?
A. CH2O ✓
B. C6H12O6
C. CHO
D. C3H6O3
The empirical formula is the simplest whole-number ratio of atoms, found by dividing every subscript by the greatest common factor, six, so C6H12O6 becomes CH2O. The molecular formula lists the actual atom counts in one molecule, and the other choices are not the reduced ratio.
Q45 Which organ is the primary source of erythropoietin, the hormone that stimulates red blood cell production?
A. Liver
B. Spleen
C. Kidney ✓
D. Bone marrow
The kidneys detect low blood oxygen and release erythropoietin, which circulates to the bone marrow and stimulates red blood cell production. The liver produces clotting factors and albumin, the spleen filters blood, and the bone marrow is where new red cells are made rather than a source of the hormone.
Q46 Which muscle provides most of the force for quiet, effortless inspiration?
A. Diaphragm ✓
B. Sternocleidomastoid
C. External intercostals
D. Rectus abdominis
During quiet breathing the diaphragm supplies the bulk of the inspiratory effort by flattening and enlarging the chest cavity. The external intercostals assist mainly in deeper breaths, the sternocleidomastoid is an accessory neck muscle, and the rectus abdominis is an expiratory abdominal muscle, so the diaphragm is primary.
Q47 In formal statistical testing, what is the claim made by the null hypothesis about the population under study?
A. A prediction that the treatment will produce a large effect
B. A prediction that no real effect or difference exists in the population ✓
C. A statement of the direction in which an effect should occur
D. An explanation of the mechanism behind an observed effect
The null hypothesis states that no real effect or difference exists in the population, and statistical tests calculate the probability of the data assuming it is true so it can be rejected. Predictions of effect size or direction describe alternative hypotheses, not the null.
Q48 In a beetle population, green individuals are eaten by birds more often than brown individuals, and after many generations the population is mostly brown. This change is best explained by pilot
A. artificial selection
B. genetic drift
C. mutation pressure
D. natural selection ✓
Birds act as an environmental pressure that differentially removes green beetles, so brown beetles reproduce more and their alleles spread through the population. Artificial selection requires human choice, genetic drift is random, and mutations alone do not sort alleles by fitness.
Q49 When the equation C3H8 + O2 yields CO2 + H2O is balanced with whole-number coefficients, what is the coefficient of O2?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5 ✓
D. 6
Balancing gives C3H8 + 5 O2 yields 3 CO2 + 4 H2O, verified by counting atoms: 3 carbons, 8 hydrogens, and 10 oxygens on each side. Therefore five oxygen molecules are required for complete combustion.
Q50 A patient has a heart rate of 70 beats per minute and a stroke volume of 80 mL. What is the cardiac output in liters per minute?
A. 0.875 L/min
B. 5.6 L/min ✓
C. 56 L/min
D. 5600 mL/min
Cardiac output equals heart rate times stroke volume: 70 beats/min multiplied by 80 mL/beat gives 5,600 mL/min, which converts to 5.6 L/min. Dividing instead of multiplying gives 0.875, misplacing the decimal gives 56 L/min, and failing to convert milliliters to liters gives 5,600 mL/min.
Conventions of standard English, knowledge of language, vocabulary acquisition.
Q1 Read the sentence. A stack of invoices sit in the tray for tomorrow's processing. Which revision makes the subject and verb agree?
A. A stack of invoices sit in the tray for tomorrow's processing.
B. A stack of invoices sits in the tray for tomorrow's processing. ✓
C. A stack of invoices are sitting in the tray for tomorrow's processing.
D. A stack of invoice sits in the tray for tomorrow's processing.
The verb must agree with the head noun of the subject, not with the noun inside the prepositional phrase. Here stack is the true subject and is singular, so it needs the singular verb sits. The other choices keep plural verbs, drop the plural ending on invoice, or repeat the original error, so none of them fix the agreement problem.
Q2 Read the sentence. The archaeologist shouted watch out for the exposed trench as the students approached. Which option correctly punctuates the shouted warning?
A. The archaeologist shouted, "Watch out for the exposed trench," as the students approached. ✓
B. The archaeologist shouted "Watch out for the exposed trench," as the students approached.
C. The archaeologist shouted, Watch out for the exposed trench, as the students approached.
D. The archaeologist shouted "Watch out for the exposed trench" as the students approached.
A direct quotation is set off from the speaker tag with a comma, and the quoted sentence ends with a comma before the closing quotation mark when the tag follows. Option A places both commas correctly. Option B omits the comma after shouted, and the last two options fail to mark the quoted words with quotation marks.
Q3 Which word is the best antonym of abundant as used in the sentence? The pantry had abundant supplies before the holiday rush.
A. ample
B. scarce ✓
C. plentiful
D. dense
Scarce is the opposite of abundant, which describes a very large quantity of something. Ample and plentiful are synonyms of abundant rather than antonyms, and dense describes how tightly packed something is instead of how much of it exists.
Q4 Read the sentence. The porch light flickered the crickets grew louder. Which option correctly fixes the run-on sentence?
A. The porch light flickered, and the crickets grew louder. ✓
B. The porch light flickered; and the crickets grew louder.
C. The porch light flickered, the crickets grew louder.
D. The porch light flickered the crickets, grew louder.
The original is a fused sentence with two independent clauses and no punctuation or conjunction between them. Adding a comma and the coordinating conjunction and joins the clauses correctly, while a comma alone leaves a splice, a semicolon before and is nonstandard, and option d strands the verb grew.
Q5 Which sentence makes a logical comparison?
A. The rooms in the east wing are smaller than the west wing.
B. The rooms in the east wing are smaller than those in the west wing. ✓
C. The rooms in the east wing are smaller than the west.
D. The rooms in the east wing are smaller than the west wing has.
A comparison must set like things against like things, so rooms must be compared with rooms. Option B compares the rooms with those, meaning the rooms, in the west wing. Options A and C compare rooms to the wing itself, and option D compares rooms to what the wing possesses, all of which are illogical.
Q6 Read these two sentences. The maple syrup season ended early. The sugarhouse closed its doors in mid-March. Which option merges the pair into a single fluent sentence? pilot
A. Because the maple syrup season ended early, the sugarhouse closed its doors in mid-March. ✓
B. The maple syrup season ended early, the sugarhouse closed its doors in mid-March.
C. The maple syrup season ended early and the sugarhouse closing its doors in mid-March.
D. Ending early, the sugarhouse closed its doors in mid-March.
Option A uses the subordinating conjunction because to show that the early end of the season caused the sugarhouse to close, producing one fluent sentence. Option B is a comma splice, option C joins the clauses with an incomplete verb phrase, and option D makes the sentence sound as though the sugarhouse itself ended early.
Q7 Which word is closest in meaning to comprise as used in the sentence? The library's collection comprises more than 80,000 volumes.
A. lacks
B. excludes
C. describes
D. contains ✓
A collection that numbers more than 80,000 volumes is made up of those volumes, so comprise means contains or includes. Lacks and excludes point the opposite way, and describes would suggest the collection only writes about the volumes rather than holding them.
Q8 Which sentence maintains correct pronoun-antecedent agreement? pilot
A. The students who finished early returned their quizzes to the front desk. ✓
B. The students who finished early returned his quizzes to the front desk.
C. The students who finished early returned its quizzes to the front desk.
D. The students who finished early returned her quizzes to the front desk.
A pronoun must agree in number with its antecedent. The antecedent is the plural noun students, so the possessive pronoun must also be plural, which is why option A's their is correct. Option B uses the singular his, option C uses its, which is reserved for things rather than people, and option D uses the singular her; none matches a plural antecedent.
Q9 Choose the verb that correctly completes the sentence: Neither the supervisor nor the assistants ___ the new scheduling software.
A. knows
B. known
C. knowing
D. know ✓
In a neither...nor construction the verb agrees with the nearer subject, and assistants is plural, so know is the right form. Knows matches only a singular subject, known is a participle that needs a helping verb, and knowing cannot serve as the main verb, which settles the choice.
Q10 Read the sentence. The rescue crew was tenacious, digging through the rubble for nineteen straight hours. Which choice is a synonym for tenacious in this sentence?
A. exhausted
B. cautious
C. cheerful
D. determined ✓
The crew's refusal to stop for nineteen straight hours points to a stubborn grip on the task, which is exactly what determined means. Tenacious literally suggests holding firmly, and the long uninterrupted digging supports that reading. Exhausted, cautious, and cheerful are not suggested by the details of continuous effort.
Q11 Read the sentence. The new hire is skilled at answering phones, filing claims, and he writes clear reports. Which revision makes the list parallel?
A. The new hire is skilled at answering phones, filing claims, and writing clear reports. ✓
B. The new hire is skilled at answering phones, filing claims, and he writes clear reports.
C. The new hire is skilled at answering phones, to file claims, and writes clear reports.
D. The new hire is skilled at phone answering, filing claims, and he writes clear reports.
Items joined in a list should be shaped the same way. The original shifts from gerunds like answering and filing to a full clause with he writes, so changing that clause to the gerund writing makes all three items parallel. The other options keep the clause form or mix gerunds with infinitive and clause forms.
Q12 Read the sentence. Whenever the fog rolled in over the tidal pools. Which addition below creates a complete sentence?
A. Whenever the fog rolled in over the tidal pools, the still herons.
B. Whenever the fog rolled in over the tidal pools, standing perfectly still.
C. Whenever the fog rolled in over the tidal pools while the herons stood still.
D. Whenever the fog rolled in over the tidal pools, the herons stood perfectly still. ✓
The clause whenever the fog rolled in is a dependent clause, so it cannot stand alone as a sentence. Option A completes the thought by adding an independent clause about the herons, forming a correct complex sentence. The other choices leave the statement incomplete or string together fragments that still lack a main clause.
Q13 Read the sentence. The hikers were elated when they finally saw the summit hut through the clearing. What does elated mean as used in the sentence? pilot
A. tired
B. overjoyed ✓
C. nervous
D. confused
The clue finally saw the summit hut tells the reader the hikers had reached their long-awaited goal, so their feeling is one of great happiness. Overjoyed matches that triumphant emotion, while tired, nervous, and confused do not fit the relief and excitement the sentence describes.
Q14 Which option correctly fixes the run-on sentence? The kettle whistled the water boiled over the stove.
A. The kettle whistled, and the water boiled over the stove. ✓
B. The kettle whistled, the water boiled over the stove.
C. The kettle whistled the water, boiled over the stove.
D. The kettle whistled and the water, boiled over the stove.
The original sentence fuses two complete statements with no punctuation, so it needs a real join. The keyed option adds a comma before and, which correctly connects the two independent clauses. The comma-only version is a comma splice, and the two options that split the water from its verb leave the second clause broken.
Q15 Read the sentence. The vaccine doses were stored in the fridge behind the pharmacy counter. Which revision places the pharmacy staff as the subject performing the action?
A. The vaccine doses were stored in the fridge behind the pharmacy counter.
B. In the fridge behind the pharmacy counter, the vaccine doses were stored.
C. The vaccine doses got stored in the fridge behind the pharmacy counter.
D. The pharmacy staff stored the vaccine doses in the fridge behind the counter. ✓
In an active sentence the person doing the action is the subject and performs the verb. The first option makes the pharmacy staff the subject that stored the doses. The other three keep the doses as the subject receiving the action, so they remain passive even when the wording is rearranged or got replaces were.
Q16 Read the sentence. The swim coach timed Maria and he at the practice meet. Which revision uses the correct pronoun case?
A. The swim coach timed Maria and his at the practice meet.
B. The swim coach timed Maria and he at the practice meet.
C. The swim coach timed Maria and him at the practice meet. ✓
D. The swim coach timed she and Maria at the practice meet.
After a verb such as timed, an object pronoun is required, so him is correct rather than he. Option A places Maria and him in the object position, matching the pronoun's case to its function in the sentence. The other options use subject or possessive forms where an object pronoun is needed.
Q17 Based on the meaning of the prefix anti-, which means against, what is an antidote most likely to be?
A. a substance that causes illness
B. a dose of extra medicine
C. a remedy that works against a poison ✓
D. a warning about a danger
The prefix anti- means against, and an antidote is a remedy that works against a poison or venom, so the against meaning fits directly. A substance that causes illness would build on a different prefix, and extra medicine and a warning describe unrelated ideas, so none of the other options carries the meaning of anti-.
Q18 Read the sentence. My neighbor Mr. Chen who runs the corner bakery retired last month. Which option punctuates the nonessential clause correctly?
A. My neighbor Mr. Chen who runs the corner bakery, retired last month.
B. My neighbor, Mr. Chen, who runs the corner bakery, retired last month. ✓
C. My neighbor, Mr. Chen who runs the corner bakery retired last month.
D. My neighbor Mr. Chen, who runs the corner bakery retired last month.
The clause who runs the corner bakery adds extra, nonessential information about Mr. Chen, so a pair of commas must set it off from the rest of the sentence. Only option B places commas both before and after the clause; the other choices use one comma or none, which misleads the reader.
Q19 The words "When the harvest moon rose" stand alone as a fragment. Which option below makes them a complete sentence?
A. When the harvest moon rose, the tide pools under the pier.
B. The harvest moon rose, when.
C. When the harvest moon rising, the tide pools glowed silver.
D. When the harvest moon rose, the tide pools glowed silver under the pier. ✓
A fragment that opens with when needs a main clause to complete the idea, and the keyed revision supplies the full clause the tide pools glowed silver under the pier. The option that ends with the tide pools under the pier stays a fragment, the when-alone version leaves the connector dangling, and the rising version breaks the verb form.
Q20 The greenhouse grows several kinds of herbs every spring. ___, basil, oregano, and thyme. Which transition best fits the blank?
A. Therefore
B. For instance ✓
C. Meanwhile
D. Otherwise
The second sentence names specific examples of the herbs the greenhouse grows, so the blank needs an example marker, and for instance fits. Therefore would claim the list is a result of the growing, meanwhile would suggest the herbs appear at the same time as the growing, and otherwise would introduce a warning rather than examples.
Q21 Read the sentence. Every firefighter on the engine crew checked their air tank before the drill began. Which revision makes the pronoun agree with its antecedent?
A. Every firefighter on the engine crew checked his or her air tank before the drill began. ✓
B. Every firefighters on the engine crew checked their air tank before the drill began.
C. Every firefighter on the engine crew checked their air tanks before the drill began.
D. Every firefighter on the engine crew checking their air tank before the drill began.
The indefinite pronoun every is singular, so the later pronoun must also be singular; their does not agree with it in formal writing. Option A uses his or her, which agrees with the singular antecedent firefighter. The other options either change the subject to plural or leave the disagreement in place.
Q22 Read these two sentences. The power strip sparked. The technician unplugged every device in the lab. Which choice best combines them into one clear sentence?
A. The power strip sparked, the technician unplugged every device in the lab.
B. The power strip sparked, unplugging every device in the lab.
C. After the power strip sparked, the technician unplugging every device in the lab.
D. After the power strip sparked, the technician unplugged every device in the lab. ✓
The two sentences describe a cause and its result, so after makes the sequence explicit and joins the ideas into one clear sentence. Option A splices two clauses with a comma, B wrongly suggests the strip itself unplugged the devices, and C leaves a fragment, making D the best combination.
Q23 A coach's note to the team reads: The game begins at noon, so the players should arrive early. Which revision keeps the meaning but uses the most informal, conversational register?
A. It is recommended that all players arrive before the noon start time.
B. The game starts at noon, so you guys should get here early. ✓
C. The game begins at noon, and the players should arrive early.
D. The game will begin at noon; therefore, early arrival is requested.
A conversational register calls for plain words and casual address rather than formal constructions. Option B uses starts, you guys, and get here, matching a spoken note to teammates, while A and D stay formal with recommended and therefore, and C remains neutral, making B the informal rewrite.
Q24 Read the sentence. The librarian asked us to return the books back to the shelf. Which option corrects the redundant wording?
A. The librarian asked us to return the books back to the shelf.
B. The librarian asked us to return back the books to the shelf.
C. The librarian asked us to return the books back to the shelf again.
D. The librarian asked us to return the books to the shelf. ✓
Return already contains the idea of carrying something back, so adding back repeats the meaning and adds wordiness. Option D deletes the unnecessary back and keeps the sentence tight, while A keeps the repetition, B leaves it awkwardly placed, and C multiplies it with the extra word again.
Q25 Which revision is the most concise without losing meaning? Original sentence: Due to the fact that the lobby elevator was out of service, the movers carried the pianos up eleven flights of stairs.
A. Due to the fact that the lobby elevator was out of service, the movers carried the pianos up the stairs, all eleven flights.
B. Because the lobby elevator was out of service, the movers carried the pianos up eleven flights of stairs. ✓
C. Owing to the fact that the lobby elevator was not in service, the movers carried the pianos up eleven flights of stairs.
D. The lobby elevator was out of service, so therefore the movers carried the pianos up eleven flights of stairs.
Concision trims wordy connectives without dropping facts. Replacing due to the fact that with because saves four words and keeps every detail. The owing-to version and the due-to version stay wordy, and the so-therefore version stacks two connectors that say the same thing.
Q26 Read the sentence. The lecturer was so loquacious that the talk ran forty minutes past the bell. What does loquacious mean as used in the sentence? pilot
A. quiet and reserved
B. very talkative ✓
C. easily confused
D. quick to anger
The clue is that the talk ran forty minutes past the bell, which points to a speaker who goes on at great length, the meaning of loquacious. Quiet and reserved is the opposite of that behavior, and easily confused and quick to anger describe states the sentence never hints at.
Q27 Read the sentence. The quilting circle meets every Tuesday the church basement is reserved until spring. Which option correctly splits the run-on sentence?
A. The quilting circle meets every Tuesday, and the church basement is reserved until spring. ✓
B. The quilting circle meets every Tuesday the church basement, is reserved until spring.
C. The quilting circle, meets every Tuesday the church basement is reserved until spring.
D. The quilting circle meets every Tuesday; however the church basement is reserved until spring.
A run-on sentence joins two independent clauses without any punctuation or conjunction. Option A adds a comma and the coordinating conjunction and, correctly connecting the clause about the quilting circle with the clause about the church basement. Option D still places the punctuation around however incorrectly, and the other options insert commas in the wrong spots.
Q28 Read the sentence. The reason why the team lost the relay race is because the final runner dropped the baton. Which revision is the most concise?
A. The reason why the team lost the relay race is because the final runner dropped the baton.
B. The team lost the relay race on account of the fact that the final runner dropped the baton.
C. The team lost the relay race because the final runner dropped the baton. ✓
D. Because the final runner dropped the baton, the reason the team lost the relay race.
The phrase the reason why ... is because piles up three ways of saying the same connection, and one because is enough. Option C trims the sentence to a direct subject and verb with a single cause clause, while A keeps the repetition, B substitutes equally wordy phrasing, and D leaves a fragment.
Q29 Read the sentence. Us volunteers will set up the chairs before the meeting. Which option corrects the pronoun case?
A. We volunteers will set up the chairs before the meeting. ✓
B. Our volunteers will set up the chairs before the meeting.
C. The us volunteers will set up the chairs before the meeting.
D. Volunteers us will set up the chairs before the meeting.
The pronoun stands in apposition to the subject volunteers, so it must take the subject form we rather than the object form us. The objective us would be correct only as an object, as in the award went to us volunteers, while the possessive our and the scrambled word orders in the other options are wrong.
Q30 Which word contains the root port-, which means carry, and names the act of moving goods from one place to another?
A. predict
B. transport ✓
C. visible
D. chronicle
Transport combines trans-, meaning across, with the root port-, meaning carry, so it names the act of carrying goods or people from one place to another. The other choices draw on different roots: dict- for speaking, vis- for seeing, and chron- for time.
Q31 Which revision best clarifies this sentence? The farmer sells eggs at the market that come from free-range hens.
A. The farmer sells eggs that come from free-range hens at the market.
B. At the market, the farmer sells eggs that come from free-range hens. ✓
C. The farmer sells eggs from free-range hens at the market that come from them.
D. The farmer sells the eggs at the market, they come from free-range hens.
The original trails the clause that come from free-range hens after the market, so the hens appear to live there, and the keyed revision opens with the place phrase and sets the that clause directly against eggs, its true target. The option that moves at the market to the end keeps the same muddle, the them version adds a vague pronoun, and the comma-splice version joins two complete sentences with only a comma.
Q32 Read the sentence. The gardener waters the seedlings every morning and checked the soil for moisture each evening. Which option corrects the tense inconsistency?
A. The gardener watered the seedlings every morning and checks the soil for moisture each evening.
B. The gardener waters the seedlings every morning and will check the soil for moisture each evening.
C. The gardener is watering the seedlings every morning and checked the soil for moisture each evening.
D. The gardener waters the seedlings every morning and checks the soil for moisture each evening. ✓
Routine habits described in one sentence must stay in the same tense unless the time genuinely shifts. Because waters signals the present, the second verb must be checks, not checked, so only D keeps both verbs consistently in the present while A, B, and C pair mismatched tense forms.
Q33 Which option revises the fragment into a complete sentence? Although the ferry was running late.
A. Although the ferry was running late, the passengers on the dock.
B. The ferry was running late, although.
C. Although the ferry running late, passengers waited patiently.
D. Although the ferry was running late, passengers waited patiently on the dock. ✓
A fragment that opens with although needs a main clause to finish it, and the keyed revision adds the complete clause passengers waited patiently on the dock. The version that trails off with the passengers on the dock remains a fragment, the although-alone version leaves the subordinator dangling, and the option that drops was breaks the verb.
Q34 Which choice best combines the two sentences? Sentence one: The corn maze opened in late September. Sentence two: The farm stands along the road followed a week later.
A. The corn maze opened in late September, the farm stands along the road followed a week later.
B. The corn maze opened in late September and the farm stands along the road following a week later.
C. After the corn maze opened in late September, the farm stands along the road followed a week later. ✓
D. The corn maze opened in late September the farm stands along the road followed a week later.
The two sentences share a clear time order, so the after version subordinates the earlier opening to the later farm stands and makes one smooth sentence. The comma version splices two complete statements, the and version leaves the second clause without a working verb, and the unpunctuated version fuses the sentences into a run-on.
Q35 The prefix pre- means before. Which word's meaning depends on that prefix?
A. preheat ✓
B. reread
C. deactivate
D. misspell
The prefix pre- means before, and preheat means to heat an oven beforehand. Reread is built on re-, which means again, deactivate on de-, which means reverse, and misspell on mis-, which means wrongly, so each distractor depends on a different prefix and does not mean before.
Q36 Which verb correctly completes the following sentence? None of the coffee ___ left in the thermos by noon.
A. was ✓
B. were
C. have been
D. be
With a singular mass noun such as coffee, none is treated as singular, so the singular verb was is correct. Were and have been are plural forms that would require a plural noun such as cookies, and be needs a helping verb or an infinitive frame, so only the singular past form completes the sentence grammatically.
Q37 Read the sentence. The birdwatchers reached the ridge early; ___, thick clouds rolled in within the hour. Which connecting word completes the sentence best?
A. finally
B. meanwhile
C. similarly
D. however ✓
The second clause describes an outcome that contrasts with the birdwatchers' early arrival, so the contrasting connector however fits the blank. Option A signals a shift from a good start to an unexpected turn. Meanwhile and similarly point to matching events, and finally suggests a sequence, none of which matches the contrast in meaning.
Last verified: 29 September 2026. Structure, timing and scoring facts are sourced from ATI's published exam materials and help center.