MET Mock Test 4 - Questions and Answers

Q1. Why does the woman have to pay more for her library card?

1. A. She moved outside the city and counts as a non-resident (correct answer)
2. B. The library raised fees for every member
3. C. Her old card expired and was stolen
4. D. She wants a card for her children too

Answer: A — The woman says she moved to the county last year, so the library now treats her as a non-resident and charges the higher fee.

Q2. What does the woman propose about the car pool?

1. A. Ask Dana to drive every weekday
2. B. Cancel the morning car pool for good
3. C. Ask Gary to take over Monday mornings (correct answer)
4. D. Move pickup to the school bus route

Answer: C — The woman suggests asking Gary to cover Monday because Dana can no longer drive that day, while Dana shifts to Fridays in the car pool rotation.

Q3. What happened to the man's grooming appointment?

1. A. It was cancelled and fully refunded
2. B. It was moved to four o'clock on Saturday (correct answer)
3. C. The groomer switched to another salon
4. D. It was booked for the wrong dog

Answer: B — The groomer's system shows the appointment was moved to four o'clock because the groomer had a family emergency and could not keep the noon slot.

Q4. Why was the morning ferry cancelled?

1. A. The engine failed during the trip
2. B. The crew was short-handed
3. C. A storm warning closed the harbor
4. D. The ferry was cancelled because of fog (correct answer)

Answer: D — The woman states that the seven-fifteen ferry was cancelled because of the fog, which is why the morning crossing did not sail.

Q5. What does the man ask the woman to do with the broken lights?

1. A. Leave them tangled around the bulbs
2. B. Put the strings loose in a bag for drop-off (correct answer)
3. C. Take them to a repair shop first
4. D. Sell the copper to a scrapyard

Answer: B — The man says the city asks people to keep the light strings loose in a bag rather than tangled, and the woman plans to drop them off Saturday.

Q6. What does the woman tell the man to do with the injured bird?

1. A. Keep it in a quiet box with a towel (correct answer)
2. B. Release it into the garden immediately
3. C. Give it bread and fresh water
4. D. Take it to a pet store

Answer: A — The woman advises the man to put the bird in a box with a soft towel and keep it quiet and warm until the wildlife rescue line opens at nine.

Q7. What must residents do to receive the rain barrel rebate?

1. A. Hire a certified plumber
2. B. Attend a city workshop
3. C. Register the barrel with a dealer
4. D. Send a photo of the barrel under the downpipe (correct answer)

Answer: D — The man explains that the rebate form only requires a photo of the barrel fitted under the downpipe, along with the kept receipt.

Q8. What is the new rule at the sledding hill?

1. A. The hill closes at dusk
2. B. Inner tubes are free to borrow
3. C. Children under twelve must wear helmets (correct answer)
4. D. Adults must use separate lanes

Answer: C — The man says the park banned inner tubes and now requires everyone under twelve to wear a helmet, and the rangers check each weekend.

Q9. Which batteries does the school collection accept?

1. A. Large car batteries from vehicles
2. B. Only rechargeable laptop cells
3. C. Household cells like AA and AAA (correct answer)
4. D. Batteries from electric buses

Answer: C — The woman clarifies that the school drive takes only household batteries such as AA and AAA cells, while car batteries go to the auto shop.

Q10. What does the seed library ask borrowers to do?

1. A. Buy new seeds every season
2. B. Attend monthly gardening classes
3. C. Pay a yearly membership fee
4. D. Save seeds from plants and return them (correct answer)

Answer: D — The man says the seed library is free but asks borrowers to save seeds from their grown plants and return at least one packet each season.

Q11. What can players get at the disc golf clubhouse?

1. A. Rentals and maps of the holes (correct answer)
2. B. Free coaching lessons every weekend
3. C. Lockers for storing equipment
4. D. Hot drinks and snacks

Answer: A — The man says the clubhouse rents discs for two dollars and sells maps of the holes at the same counter, so players can get both there.

Q12. Why is the woman taking her cat to the clinic on Saturday?

1. A. To have her cat treated for an illness
2. B. To get her cat a microchip (correct answer)
3. C. To adopt another kitten
4. D. To collect free cat food

Answer: B — The woman decides to bring her indoor cat to the free microchip day because the chip helps find lost animals and gives her peace of mind.

Q13. How did the man get the bike locker?

1. A. He won it in a station raffle
2. B. He bought it from another worker
3. C. He paid for a premium upgrade
4. D. He joined the waiting list in March (correct answer)

Answer: D — The man explains that he joined the waiting list in March and a spot finally opened up yesterday, after months of waiting.

Q14. Why does the parks office need residents to water the trees?

1. A. The parks office is short-handed this summer (correct answer)
2. B. The trees were recently poisoned
3. C. Watering trucks broke down
4. D. A drought ban was announced

Answer: A — The woman says the parks office is short-handed this summer, so the new street trees rely on neighbours who adopt them and fill the watering bags.

Q15. How does the harvest share program work?

1. A. The orchard delivers boxes to homes
2. B. Families pay a fixed monthly fee
3. C. People pick fruit and leave a donation (correct answer)
4. D. Only volunteers may take the fruit

Answer: C — The man explains that people register for a time slot, pick the fruit they need themselves, and leave a donation in the box at the orchard.

Q16. What is the community fridge for?

1. A. Holding donated winter coats
2. B. Extra food that anyone can take (correct answer)
3. C. Storing shared garden tools
4. D. Keeping drinks cold for events

Answer: B — The woman describes the fridge as a place where anyone can leave extra food and anyone can take what they need, so the man will drop off tomatoes.

Q17. What does the woman say volunteers should bring?

1. A. A water bottle only (correct answer)
2. B. Their own gardening gloves
3. C. Saplings from their own gardens
4. D. A pair of rubber boots

Answer: A — The woman says the council supplies gloves and tools for the planting weekend, so volunteers only need to bring a water bottle.

Q18. What does the firewood permit allow a household to take?

1. A. An unlimited supply of logs
2. B. One trailer load of firewood (correct answer)
3. C. A chainsaw rental voucher
4. D. A camping pass for the season

Answer: B — The woman says the free permit covers one trailer load of firewood per household and must be printed and carried when collecting the wood.

Q19. What does the man recommend for the woman's lawn?

1. A. Watering the lawn every morning
2. B. Installing artificial turf instead
3. C. A seed mix for lawns with less water (correct answer)
4. D. A chemical lawn treatment

Answer: C — The man recommends a seed mix sold at the garden center that stays green with less water, which costs more but saves on water bills.

Q20. How was the mural artist chosen?

1. A. By the city council alone
2. B. From an art school contest
3. C. By the post office manager
4. D. Through a public vote (correct answer)

Answer: D — The woman says she heard the artist was chosen by a public vote, and the man confirms it, with the mural theme being local wildlife.

Q21. What does someone need to join the tool library?

1. A. A photo ID and a proof of address (correct answer)
2. B. A tool operator's license
3. C. A written reference from a builder
4. D. An upfront deposit of fifty dollars

Answer: A — The coordinator says new members need a photo ID and a proof of address such as a utility bill, and membership costs thirty dollars a year.

Q22. How long is a standard tool loan?

1. A. Three days, with one renewal
2. B. Two weeks, with no renewals
3. C. Seven days, renewable once online (correct answer)
4. D. One month for heavy tools

Answer: C — The coordinator explains that standard loans run seven days and can be renewed once online if nobody has placed a hold on the tool.

Q23. What happens if a borrowed tool breaks from misuse?

1. A. The library replaces it for free
2. B. The borrower loses membership for a year
3. C. A report is sent to the city office
4. D. You must cover the repair cost (correct answer)

Answer: D — The coordinator says normal wear and tear is covered, but if a tool breaks from misuse the borrower is asked to cover the repair cost.

Q24. Why was the plot draw postponed?

1. A. Too few people applied this season
2. B. The fence and water lines were not finished (correct answer)
3. C. The council changed the fee structure
4. D. The coordinator went on leave

Answer: B — The officer explains that rainy weather delayed the fence installation, so the draw was moved to Thursday because plots need fencing and water lines first.

Q25. How are winning applicants matched with plots?

1. A. By age, starting with the oldest
2. B. In the order their numbers are drawn (correct answer)
3. C. By the size of their family
4. D. By how long they have waited

Answer: B — The officer says each applicant who passes the residency check gets a number, and winners choose their plots in the order the numbers are drawn.

Q26. What does the plot fee cover?

1. A. Seeds, fertilizer, and mulch
2. B. Fencing, locks, and insurance
3. C. Workshops and guest speakers
4. D. Water, compost delivery, and shed tools (correct answer)

Answer: D — The officer says the season fee covers water, compost delivery, and access to the shed tools, with full plots costing sixty dollars.

Q27. Why must members sign a liability waiver?

1. A. It covers the club on its outings (correct answer)
2. B. It allows photos on the trail
3. C. It reserves a car park space
4. D. It waives the annual fee

Answer: A — The secretary says the waiver covers the club for slips, falls, and weather-related risks on club outings, so every member signs it before hiking.

Q28. What must new members do before a harder hike?

1. A. Complete a formal training course
2. B. Buy the club's official boots
3. C. Finish an easy-grade hike first (correct answer)
4. D. Pass a fitness test

Answer: C — The secretary says no training is required, but new members must complete one easy-grade hike before joining a harder one on the one-to-five scale.

Q29. What does the membership fee cover?

1. A. Transport to the trailhead
2. B. Free boots for beginners
3. C. Insurance and leaders' first-aid kits (correct answer)
4. D. Trail permits for the season

Answer: C — The secretary says the twenty-five dollar fee covers the club insurance and the first-aid kits that the hike leaders carry on each outing.

Q30. What does the basic stall fee include?

1. A. A table and two chairs (correct answer)
2. B. A power outlet and lighting
3. C. A tent and a heater
4. D. Storage for the night

Answer: A — The organizer says the stall fee includes a basic table and two chairs, while a power outlet for a lamp or card reader costs an extra ten dollars.

Q31. What must Nadia do within five days?

1. A. Send photos of her ceramics
2. B. Pay the fee to hold her space (correct answer)
3. C. Buy public liability insurance
4. D. Choose her stall number

Answer: B — The organizer tells Nadia to complete the website form and pay the fee within five days to lock in her spot at the autumn craft fair.

Q32. When must vendor stalls be ready?

1. A. At six thirty in the evening
2. B. Right after the opening speech
3. C. When the hall doors open at ten
4. D. By nine on the morning of the event (correct answer)

Answer: D — The organizer says setup starts at six thirty in the morning and all vendor stalls must be ready by nine o'clock on the day of the fair.

Q33. When can the community kitchen be booked?

1. A. Only on weekdays at noon
2. B. Just the first Sunday of the month
3. C. Every morning before nine
4. D. Friday evenings and all weekend (correct answer)

Answer: D — Rosa says the kitchen is available Friday evenings and all weekend and comes with two ovens, a six-burner stove, and a large fridge.

Q34. What does the refundable deposit cover?

1. A. The cost of the food
2. B. Damage or extra cleaning costs (correct answer)
3. C. Rental of extra tables
4. D. Fuel for the ovens

Answer: B — The manager says the fifty dollar deposit covers any damage or a cleaning bill if the kitchen is left dirty, and it is returned within a week.

Q35. What happens if Priya cancels at least ten days early?

1. A. She keeps the deposit only
2. B. She loses the booking fee
3. C. She gets a full refund of fee and deposit (correct answer)
4. D. She must rebook within a month

Answer: C — Rosa says cancellations at least ten days before the booking receive a full refund of both the fee and the deposit, while later ones keep the deposit only.

Q36. Who is eligible for the free tax help?

1. A. Households earning under fifty-five thousand a year (correct answer)
2. B. Only photographers who work alone
3. C. Anyone with a business loss
4. D. Students under twenty-five only

Answer: A — The coordinator says the service helps households earning under fifty-five thousand dollars a year, including employment income and simple freelancing.

Q37. What happens during the first session?

1. A. The return is prepared on the spot (correct answer)
2. B. A file is sent to the tax office
3. C. The client takes forms home
4. D. An accountant reviews last year

Answer: A — The coordinator says the first session takes about an hour and the return is prepared on the spot together with the client.

Q38. When does Omar's appointment take place?

1. A. Tuesday evening at the library
2. B. Saturday evening in the hall
3. C. Saturday morning at the community hall (correct answer)
4. D. A weekday at the tax office

Answer: C — Omar books the coming Saturday at nine o'clock at the community hall, where clinics run on Saturday mornings from March to October.

Q39. How often does the museum hold late nights in summer?

1. A. Every Thursday until the end of August (correct answer)
2. B. Only on the first Friday of each month
3. C. Every weekend from five to ten
4. D. On rainy days and public holidays

Answer: A — The speaker announces that from this week until the end of August the museum stays open until ten every Thursday, with half price entry after five.

Q40. What is next week's late night theme?

1. A. Transport and tramway models
2. B. Textiles and restored looms (correct answer)
3. C. Photography in the galleries
4. D. Music from the rooftop

Answer: B — The speaker says tonight's theme is transport while next week is textiles, when the museum brings out the restored looms for demonstrations.

Q41. What rule applies to children under twelve at late nights?

1. A. They must leave before nine o'clock
2. B. They need a museum badge
3. C. They must stay with an adult (correct answer)
4. D. They must book a guided tour

Answer: C — The speaker explains that children under twelve must stay with an adult because some of the late night rooms are dark and crowded.

Q42. How often should a first-aid kit be checked?

1. A. Every single week without fail
2. B. Only after an emergency
3. C. Once when it is first bought
4. D. Twice a year, at the time changes (correct answer)

Answer: D — The speaker advises emptying the kit twice a year at the time changes and checking every expiry date, replacing anything runny, rusty, or past its date.

Q43. Where does the speaker recommend keeping the main home kit?

1. A. In the kitchen, where burns happen (correct answer)
2. B. In the bathroom medicine cabinet
3. C. In the bedroom closet
4. D. In the garage next to the car

Answer: A — The speaker recommends keeping one kit in the kitchen because that is where most burns and cuts happen, and another in the car for longer trips.

Q44. What should be written on the kit's lid?

1. A. The date it was purchased
2. B. The emergency number and home address (correct answer)
3. C. The name of the family doctor
4. D. A list of family allergies

Answer: B — The speaker says to write the emergency number and the home address on the lid so that anyone can read them quickly during a crisis.

Q45. How does the community solar subscription appear?

1. A. As a cash payment each winter
2. B. As free panels on the roof
3. C. As a credit on the electricity bill (correct answer)
4. D. As a discount at city offices

Answer: C — The speaker says a subscriber's share appears as a credit on the electricity bill each month, with the amount depending on how much the farm produces.

Q46. What must subscribers bring to sign up in person?

1. A. A roof inspection certificate
2. B. A landlord's written consent
3. C. A five-year contract signature
4. D. Their electricity bill and photo ID (correct answer)

Answer: D — The speaker says applicants should bring their electricity bill and photo ID to the city office, or they can apply online before the end of next month.

Q47. How are the free low-income shares awarded?

1. A. Drawn by ballot each spring (correct answer)
2. B. By order of application
3. C. By household size and need
4. D. By length of city residency

Answer: A — The speaker explains that a limited number of free shares for low-income households are drawn by ballot each spring, funded by an energy grant.

Q48. What is free on Friday for the first two hours only?

1. A. Skate hire for children
2. B. Admission to the rink (correct answer)
3. C. Lockers in the warm-up cabin
4. D. The learn-to-glide skating class

Answer: B — The speaker says admission is free for the first two hours on Friday only, after which adults pay eight dollars and children under twelve pay five.

Q49. When does the cleaning break at the rink happen?

1. A. At midday on Sundays
2. B. After the evening session ends
3. C. At the start of the afternoon session (correct answer)
4. D. On Friday morning only

Answer: C — The two daily sessions run from nine to one and from two to nine, with a cleaning break at the start of the afternoon session.

Q50. Which rule must skaters follow at the rink?

1. A. No gloves are allowed on the ice
2. B. No photos may be taken
3. C. No skating during light snow
4. D. No hockey sticks on public sessions (correct answer)

Answer: D — The speaker lists three rules including no hockey sticks on public sessions, along with helmet advice for children and no food or drink on the ice.

Q1. If the tour guide _____ the group's pace, nobody would have missed the last ferry.

1. A. had adjusted (correct answer)
2. B. adjusted
3. C. would adjust
4. D. will adjust

Answer: A — 'Had adjusted' forms the past perfect in the if-clause of a third conditional, describing an unreal situation in the past that did not happen.

Q2. The compost facility, _____ opened last spring, now processes half the city's food waste.

1. A. that opened
2. B. which opened (correct answer)
3. C. what opened
4. D. where opened

Answer: B — 'Which opened' introduces a non-defining relative clause that adds extra information about the compost facility without restricting its meaning.

Q3. The board moved that the annual meeting _____ via video link this year.

1. A. be held (correct answer)
2. B. will be held
3. C. is held
4. D. was held

Answer: A — Verbs of recommendation such as 'moved that' take the subjunctive, so the base form 'be held' is used regardless of the subject or tense.

Q4. The inspector confirmed that the faulty valve _____ repaired the previous week.

1. A. has been
2. B. had been (correct answer)
3. C. is being
4. D. was being

Answer: B — In reported speech, the tense moves one step back into the past, so the past perfect 'had been' correctly places the repair before the inspection.

Q5. Rarely _____ such a close finish in the regional cycling final.

1. A. seen spectators
2. B. spectators have seen
3. C. spectators seen
4. D. have spectators seen (correct answer)

Answer: D — A negative adverb such as 'rarely' at the start of a clause requires inversion, placing the auxiliary 'have' before the subject 'spectators'.

Q6. Unless the tenant _____ the notice in writing, the landlord will assume the lease continues.

1. A. will cancel
2. B. would cancel
3. C. cancelled
4. D. cancels (correct answer)

Answer: D — The present simple 'cancels' expresses the condition in an unless-clause that refers to a possible future event, matching the future result in the main clause.

Q7. The new supervisor is known _____ listening carefully to every shift report.

1. A. to
2. B. by
3. C. for (correct answer)
4. D. with

Answer: C — The fixed phrase 'known for' is followed by a gerund such as 'listening' when it names the quality or habit that makes someone recognised.

Q8. Between the two hiking routes, the ridge trail is _____ for an inexperienced walker.

1. A. safer (correct answer)
2. B. safest
3. C. the safest
4. D. safely

Answer: A — When comparing exactly two things, the comparative form 'safer' is required; the superlative 'safest' would be used only with three or more.

Q9. All parking permits _____ through the online portal once the new system goes live.

1. A. are issued
2. B. were issued
3. C. have been issued
4. D. will be issued (correct answer)

Answer: D — The future passive 'will be issued' describes an action that will happen after the new system starts, a future event expressed from the passive point of view.

Q10. The children's librarian encouraged _____ the picture books aloud during story hour.

1. A. to read
2. B. read
3. C. reading (correct answer)
4. D. to reading

Answer: C — The verb 'encouraged' is followed by a gerund when the activity itself is named, so 'encouraged reading' completes the sentence correctly.

Q11. The fog was so thick _____ drivers could not see the traffic lights from twenty metres.

1. A. which
2. B. so
3. C. this
4. D. that (correct answer)

Answer: D — The pattern 'so...that' links a degree of intensity to its result, so 'that' introduces the clause describing what the drivers could not do.

Q12. Neither the driver nor the passengers _____ aware of the detour until the bus turned.

1. A. was
2. B. has been
3. C. were (correct answer)
4. D. is

Answer: C — With 'neither...nor', the verb agrees with the nearer subject 'passengers', so the plural form 'were' is required in this sentence.

Q13. Whenever the overnight temperature drops below zero, the ground crew _____ the runways with de-icing fluid.

1. A. treats (correct answer)
2. B. treated
3. C. will treat
4. D. would treat

Answer: A — The zero conditional states a general truth, so the present simple 'treats' is used in both the condition and the result clause.

Q14. I wish I _____ the museum pass before the exhibition closed last month.

1. A. bought
2. B. had bought (correct answer)
3. C. would buy
4. D. buy

Answer: B — A wish about a past situation that cannot be changed uses the past perfect, so 'had bought' expresses the regret correctly.

Q15. Spare parts for the older machines must _____ from the overseas supplier.

1. A. ordering (correct answer)
2. B. be ordered
3. C. order
4. D. ordered

Answer: A — The modal 'must' is followed by the passive infinitive 'be ordered' because the spare parts receive the action of being ordered.

Q16. By the end of the decade, the research station _____ data on polar ice for twenty years.

1. A. will collect
2. B. collected
3. C. will have collected (correct answer)
4. D. has collected

Answer: C — The future perfect 'will have collected' describes an action completed before a specific future moment, the end of the decade.

Q17. The volunteers were praised _____ their quick response during the flood warning.

1. A. with
2. B. for (correct answer)
3. C. on
4. D. at

Answer: B — The verb phrase 'praised for' takes the preposition 'for' when it introduces the reason or action for which someone receives praise.

Q18. The accountant spent the afternoon _____ discrepancies between the two ledgers.

1. A. to reconcile
2. B. reconcile
3. C. reconciling (correct answer)
4. D. reconciled

Answer: C — The structure 'spend time' followed by a gerund names the activity, so 'reconciling' is the correct form after 'spent the afternoon'.

Q19. _____ of the three proposals received a majority, so the committee will meet again.

1. A. None (correct answer)
2. B. Both
3. C. Each
4. D. All

Answer: A — 'None' means not even one and fits the plural noun 'proposals' while agreeing with the singular verb that follows in this sentence.

Q20. The engineer, who _____ for the utility since 2011, now leads the maintenance team.

1. A. will work
2. B. has worked (correct answer)
3. C. had worked
4. D. works

Answer: B — The present perfect 'has worked' connects a period beginning in 2011 with the present situation, which is the correct tense with 'since'.

Q21. What is the main topic of the passage?

1. A. The effects of hurricanes on coastal towns
2. B. The history of a mountain mining town
3. C. The practice of visiting places linked to death, disaster, or suffering (correct answer)
4. D. The debate between critics and historians

Answer: C — The passage begins by defining dark tourism as the practice of visiting places associated with death, disaster, or suffering, and the rest of the text develops that single topic.

Q22. According to the passage, why do some visitors come to dark tourism sites?

1. A. Out of historical curiosity or a wish to show respect (correct answer)
2. B. To find cheap holiday accommodation
3. C. To study mountain wildlife
4. D. To try adventure sports near the sites

Answer: A — The first paragraph says some visitors come out of historical curiosity, while others want to understand human endurance or show respect at places where ordinary people faced extraordinary circumstances.

Q23. About how many people visit Silver Hollow each year?

1. A. About sixty thousand
2. B. About one hundred and twenty thousand
3. C. About ninety thousand (correct answer)
4. D. About forty-two thousand

Answer: C — The passage states that Silver Hollow now receives about ninety thousand visitors a year, a figure given in the second paragraph about the restored mining town.

Q24. What rule do most visitors to Silver Hollow accept?

1. A. Entry only with a trained guide
2. B. A ban on visits in winter
3. C. A ban on photography inside the memorial chapel (correct answer)
4. D. Reserved tickets for residents

Answer: C — The passage says photography is banned inside the chapel at Silver Hollow and that this is a rule most visitors accept without complaint.

Q25. How did Port Ansel try to keep its memorial site respectful?

1. A. By rebuilding the harbour further inland
2. B. By closing the memorial to all visitors
3. C. By removing the admission fees
4. D. By limiting daily entry and adding a public education programme (correct answer)

Answer: D — Port Ansel limited daily entry to the harbour memorial and added a public education programme in the town hall, framing each visit as learning rather than entertainment.

Q26. What criticism do critics make of such sites?

1. A. They receive too few visitors to matter
2. B. They hire too many foreign guides
3. C. They are too educational for tourists
4. D. Grief has become a product sold through gift shops and tours (correct answer)

Answer: D — Critics argue that no amount of careful framing can separate mourning from commerce, pointing to gift shops and guided tours as proof that grief has become a product.

Q27. How do researchers answer the critics?

1. A. They suggest closing the gift shops entirely
2. B. They argue that respectful interest and genuine remembrance are not opposites (correct answer)
3. C. They say research visits should be limited
4. D. They propose banning tourists from chapels

Answer: B — Researchers reply that respectful interest and genuine remembrance are not opposites, because a site that tells its story honestly can serve both the visitor and the community it honours.

Q28. What do the admission fees pay for, according to the passage?

1. A. Guides' travel expenses
2. B. Preservation of the sites and local jobs (correct answer)
3. C. Local museum salaries
4. D. New mining tunnels

Answer: B — The passage states that admission fees fund preservation and create local jobs, which is why managers try to balance income against the risk of cheapening a place of remembrance.

Q29. What does the waggle dance tell other bees?

1. A. The direction and distance of a food source (correct answer)
2. B. The temperature inside the hive
3. C. The size of the colony
4. D. The location of the hive entrance

Answer: A — The angle and speed of the waggle dance tell other workers the direction and distance of the food, according to the first paragraph of the passage.

Q30. What did the Linden researchers find about how bees change their dances?

1. A. The dance never changes
2. B. Bees only dance at night
3. C. Bees dance for longer when nectar is rich (correct answer)
4. D. The dance speeds up when flowers are poor

Answer: C — Recordings at Linden show that bees adjust the signal when conditions change, dancing for longer when nectar is rich and abandoning the dance when flowers are poor.

Q31. Why does the passage call honeybees a sensitive early warning system?

1. A. They predict changes in the weather
2. B. They can detect pollution in rivers
3. C. Sudden losses of whole colonies signal wider problems (correct answer)
4. D. They fly further north each year

Answer: C — Honeybees are described as an early warning system because sudden losses of whole colonies, known as colony collapse, reveal problems in the environment around them.

Q32. What does the passage say causes colony collapse?

1. A. A single virus
2. B. Pollution from city traffic (correct answer)
3. C. A combination of a mite, viral infections, and certain pesticides
4. D. Cold winter weather alone

Answer: B — The cause of colony collapse is described as a combination of factors: a parasitic mite, viral infections, and the widespread use of certain pesticides that disturb the bees' navigation.

Q33. What did Linden studies find about colonies exposed to contaminated pollen?

1. A. They produced sweeter honey
2. B. They took longer to return to the hive and recruited fewer newcomers (correct answer)
3. C. They lived twice as long
4. D. They stopped dancing completely

Answer: B — Studies at Linden found that colonies exposed to contaminated pollen took longer to return to the hive and recruited fewer newcomers to good feeding sites.

Q34. What is the Flower Count project?

1. A. A volunteer network of beekeepers who photograph hive entrances weekly (correct answer)
2. B. A government scheme to plant wildflowers
3. C. A breeding programme for queen bees
4. D. A museum exhibition about insects

Answer: A — The Flower Count is a project in which volunteer beekeepers photograph their hives' entrances every week, producing a large archive of images for the researchers.

Q35. What did the volunteer network detect before official surveys?

1. A. A new species of mite
2. B. A regional decline in bee numbers two years early (correct answer)
3. C. A rise in honey prices
4. D. A change in flower colour

Answer: B — The centre credits the volunteer network with detecting a regional decline two years before the official surveys did, showing the value of the Flower Count project.

Q36. What caution do scientists give about the waggle dance?

1. A. It is the only way bees communicate
2. B. Bees can name individual flowers
3. C. It is losing its accuracy
4. D. It is not a language in the human sense (correct answer)

Answer: D — Scientists caution that the waggle dance is not a language in the human sense, because it carries no names or opinions, only information about location and quality.

Q37. According to the proposal, why does the association want to leave the park?

1. A. Customers prefer shopping indoors
2. B. The park is being sold for housing
3. C. The park site has no room to grow and suffers in wet weather (correct answer)
4. D. The city centre offers free trader parking

Answer: C — The proposal says the park site holds 110 stalls with no room to grow, and that traders set up and pack down in the rain on wet weekends, prompting the move to the covered hall.

Q38. What does the covered market hall offer that the park cannot?

1. A. Heated space for year-round trading (correct answer)
2. B. An outdoor playground
3. C. Free stall fees
4. D. A riverside view

Answer: A — The association lists heated space for year-round trading, a loading dock, and parking for sixty cars underneath the hall as the main advantages over the park.

Q39. By how much would stall fees rise under the proposal?

1. A. Fifteen percent (correct answer)
2. B. Ten percent
3. C. Five percent
4. D. Twenty-five percent

Answer: A — The proposal states that stall fees would rise by fifteen percent to cover the rent, which the association says higher footfall in the centre will more than make up for.

Q40. What do the traders say the park gives the market?

1. A. Cheaper electricity
2. B. Customers who relax, stay longer, and talk to stallholders (correct answer)
3. C. A shorter journey for suppliers
4. D. Indoor storage rooms

Answer: B — The traders argue that the park is the reason customers come: they walk their dogs, let their children run, and stay for an hour talking to the stallholders.

Q41. What do the traders say the association's own survey shows?

1. A. Rent in the centre is cheaper
2. B. Most stallholders support the move
3. C. The hall is too small for the market
4. D. Footfall in the centre falls sharply after lunch (correct answer)

Answer: D — The traders say the association's own survey shows footfall at the city centre falls sharply after lunch, which weakens the argument that the move would increase trade.

Q42. What alternative do the traders propose?

1. A. Ending the market altogether
2. B. Moving the market to another park
3. C. Spending money on canopies, drainage, and lighting at the park (correct answer)
4. D. Holding the market twice a week

Answer: C — The traders ask the association to spend the money on covered canopies, better drainage, and lighting at the existing park site so the market can stay by the river.

Q43. What idea do the two documents share?

1. A. Markets should be run by the city council
2. B. Stall fees should be removed
3. C. Indoor halls always beat open-air sites
4. D. The market is worth keeping and improving (correct answer)

Answer: D — Both documents treat the market as valuable: the association wants to expand it in a new hall, while the traders want to improve it where it is, so both agree it is worth keeping and improving.

Q44. What two measures form the council's plan?

1. A. A new ferry terminal and a coastal road
2. B. A rock seawall and beach nourishment (correct answer)
3. C. Relocating homes and a pumping station
4. D. Dune planting and a boardwalk

Answer: B — The plan combines a four-kilometre rock seawall behind the beach with an initial beach nourishment of 400,000 cubic metres of sand to rebuild the shoreline.

Q45. According to the council, how will the work be funded?

1. A. A national lottery fund
2. B. Private developers' contributions
3. C. Tourism taxes alone
4. D. State erosion grants matched by a small local rate levy (correct answer)

Answer: D — Funding comes from state erosion grants matched by a small rate levy collected over five years, as the council's plan explains in its overview of the project.

Q46. What criticism does the biologist make of hard seawalls?

1. A. They are too expensive to build
2. B. They throw wave energy back and erode neighbouring beaches (correct answer)
3. C. They block the view of the sea
4. D. They trap sand in the harbour

Answer: B — The biologist says hard walls do not remove wave energy but throw it back, so the water turns sideways and erodes the beaches next door, as happened south of the harbour wall.

Q47. What does the biologist recommend instead of the wall?

1. A. Living shorelines such as planted dunes and offshore sandbars (correct answer)
2. B. Closing the beach to the public
3. C. A taller, stronger wall
4. D. Building new homes further out to sea

Answer: A — The biologist would spend the wall money on living shorelines: planted dunes, offshore sandbars, and a setback zone that lets the beach roll inland naturally.

Q48. What does the biologist predict about the wall's future?

1. A. It will last for a century
2. B. It will need no maintenance at all
3. C. It will protect the beach permanently
4. D. It will need major rebuilding within forty years (correct answer)

Answer: D — The biologist warns that the rock wall will need major rebuilding within forty years as storms grow stronger, which is why a softer defence is considered cheaper to maintain.

Q49. What environmental precaution does the council mention?

1. A. Pausing work during the turtle nesting season each summer (correct answer)
2. B. Using only recycled concrete
3. C. Closing the beach at night
4. D. Moving the pumping station inland

Answer: A — The council has chosen sand from an approved offshore site and will pause construction during the turtle nesting season each summer as an environmental precaution.

Q50. What do the two documents agree on?

1. A. The seawall should be built first
2. B. Only further studies are required
3. C. The homes should be abandoned
4. D. The threat of erosion is real and action is needed (correct answer)

Answer: D — The council argues that doing nothing would cost more in the end, and the biologist says the threat is real and something must be done, so both agree that action is needed.