MET Mock Test 3 - Questions and Answers

Q1. Why does the woman want to borrow the man's ladder?

1. A. To clean out a clogged gutter (correct answer)
2. B. To reach a high bookshelf
3. C. To hang outdoor fairy lights
4. D. To repair a cracked window

Answer: A — The woman says her gutter is clogged and water spills over the edge, so she asks to borrow the man's tall ladder to clean it tonight.

Q2. What does the man agree to do?

1. A. Stay home with his mother
2. B. Close the office at noon
3. C. Take over the night shift
4. D. Cover the woman's desk shift on Friday (correct answer)

Answer: D — The woman asks the man to cover her front desk shift on Friday afternoon, and he agrees to stay until four o'clock, when the desk closes.

Q3. What is the rule about taking pictures in the main hall?

1. A. Visitors may use flash freely
2. B. Photography is not allowed there (correct answer)
3. C. Only staff may take photos
4. D. Phone cameras are always permitted

Answer: B — The man asks about taking photographs in the main hall, and the woman explains that the main hall does not allow any photography at all.

Q4. What does the woman imply about the book on the lighthouse keeper?

1. A. It describes an exciting inventor
2. B. Its subject inspired her brother
3. C. It may be too brief for the report (correct answer)
4. D. It covers modern elevator design

Answer: C — The woman notes that the book about the lighthouse keeper has only six chapters, implying it may be too short for the biography report he must write.

Q5. What does the man offer to do about the car?

1. A. Call a tow truck service
2. B. Test the dim headlights
3. C. Buy new sets of cables
4. D. Help the woman jump-start her car (correct answer)

Answer: D — The man recognises the dim headlights as a dead battery, moves his car next to the woman's, and offers to walk her through jumping the car.

Q6. What does the man plan to buy at the corner store?

1. A. Cilantro and lime juice (correct answer)
2. B. A pot and a ladle
3. C. Plates for the dinner guests
4. D. Fresh tomatoes and onions

Answer: A — The man is out of cilantro for his salsa and decides to run to the corner store, and the woman asks him to also buy lime juice.

Q7. Where does the woman say lost items are taken?

1. A. To the police station
2. B. To the ticket machine
3. C. To the front counter (correct answer)
4. D. To the cleaning office

Answer: C — The woman explains that the cinema's cleaning crew hands lost items to the front counter by midnight, which is where the man should look.

Q8. How can guests enter the hotel after midnight?

1. A. By ringing the night bell
2. B. With a key card at the side entrance (correct answer)
3. C. Through the main lobby doors
4. D. By calling the front desk

Answer: B — The man explains that the main doors lock at midnight, but guests can enter through the side entrance using their room key card at any hour.

Q9. What does the woman say about freezing the membership?

1. A. It is done through the app before the first of the month (correct answer)
2. B. It requires a visit to the front desk
3. C. It is only possible for one week
4. D. It cannot be arranged while travelling

Answer: A — The woman says a membership can be frozen for up to two months, and the man can arrange it through the app before the first of the month.

Q10. What does the man say the woman can do with the coin?

1. A. Pay for a new door handle
2. B. Leave it in the lock overnight
3. C. Use it to open the stuck door latch (correct answer)
4. D. Trade it at the repair shop

Answer: C — Because the laundry room door is not locked but its handle sticks, the man suggests sliding a coin into the gap around the latch to pop it open.

Q11. What does the woman intend to do?

1. A. Cancel the printing job
2. B. Look for a spare cartridge in the cupboard (correct answer)
3. C. Reschedule the afternoon meeting
4. D. Order more printer paper

Answer: B — The woman offers to check the supply cupboard for a spare toner cartridge, since the cartridges they ordered through the office have not arrived.

Q12. What does the woman recommend?

1. A. Buy a new pair of boots
2. B. Throw the boots away
3. C. Borrow her spare boots
4. D. Have the boots resoled by a cobbler (correct answer)

Answer: D — The woman says a cobbler can resole the man's peeling hiking boots for about thirty dollars, and the man agrees the worn uppers are still worth saving.

Q13. What does the man say about ticket exchanges?

1. A. They are only valid for standby seats
2. B. They are possible for the Saturday show if seats remain (correct answer)
3. C. They always require a large fee
4. D. They are limited to the balcony only

Answer: B — The man says the venue exchanges tickets for the Saturday show if seats are open, and the clerk reported about a dozen balcony seats remaining.

Q14. What does the woman say about the nature camp?

1. A. It is already fully booked (correct answer)
2. B. Its deadline is next week
3. C. It costs more than the art camp
4. D. It starts this Friday

Answer: A — The woman corrects the man by saying the nature camp is already full, so the Friday deadline for the art camp is what matters now.

Q15. What does the man offer to do about the fence?

1. A. Paint the fence by himself
2. B. Measure the fence tonight
3. C. Buy the weatherproof paint alone
4. D. Share the cost with the woman (correct answer)

Answer: D — The man agrees to help paint the side fence as long as they split the cost of the paint and the brushes between the two households.

Q16. What change did the woman make to her class plan?

1. A. She switched from Monday to Wednesday
2. B. She joined the man's book club
3. C. She chose bread-making instead of pasta (correct answer)
4. D. She cancelled her registration

Answer: C — The woman says she changed her mind about the pasta course and now wants the bread-making class, which has a new Wednesday section.

Q17. Why will the man visit the jeweller?

1. A. To buy a new watch strap
2. B. To have his watch repaired after a fall
3. C. To get a new battery fitted (correct answer)
4. D. To collect a ring

Answer: C — The man's watch stopped overnight, so the woman suggests the jeweller on King Street, which replaces watch batteries while customers wait.

Q18. What will the woman bring to collect her parcel?

1. A. The delivery notice slip only
2. B. A signed letter from the sender
3. C. Proof of payment in cash
4. D. Photo identification and the tracking number (correct answer)

Answer: D — The man says the post office needs photo identification and the notice slip, and the woman replies that she has the tracking number instead of the slip.

Q19. What does the woman tell the man to do before the update?

1. A. Ignore the update notice
2. B. Save his files to a spare drive first (correct answer)
3. C. Leave the laptop running overnight
4. D. Ask her cousin for help

Answer: B — The woman warns that a similar update erased her cousin's files, so she advises the man to copy his photos and reports to the spare drive first.

Q20. What will the speakers probably do?

1. A. Hold the picnic on Sunday when the weather is sunny (correct answer)
2. B. Cancel the picnic completely
3. C. Keep the picnic on Saturday
4. D. Move the picnic to the park shelter

Answer: A — Because rain is forecast for Saturday, the speakers agree to move the picnic to Sunday, when the weather should be sunny and the park quieter.

Q21. What does Martin need to bring to the first pottery class?

1. A. Clay and a set of tools
2. B. An apron and a towel (correct answer)
3. C. A bowl and a mug
4. D. His own potter's wheel

Answer: B — The receptionist says new students only need to bring an apron and a towel, because the centre supplies the clay, wheels, and tools.

Q22. What does the instructor do with students who have no experience?

1. A. Assigns them a private studio
2. B. Requires a written skill test
3. C. Begins with basic clay shaping (correct answer)
4. D. Sells them extra clay

Answer: C — The receptionist explains that the instructor starts beginners with basic shaping, so no previous experience with clay is required for the class.

Q23. What does the receptionist say about paying for the whole term at once?

1. A. It includes a small discount (correct answer)
2. B. It must be paid in cash
3. C. It covers two extra classes
4. D. It cannot be refunded

Answer: A — The receptionist says Martin can pay for the whole term at once and that full-term payment comes with a small discount.

Q24. What problem does the manager mention about the fifteenth?

1. A. The room is already reserved
2. B. The chairs are too few
3. C. The blinds cannot be closed
4. D. The projector is being repaired (correct answer)

Answer: D — The manager needs the projector for slides, but Sarah tells him the projector in the large conference room is being repaired and will not be ready until the twelfth.

Q25. How many people can the room seat with the added chairs?

1. A. Thirty people exactly, no more
2. B. Forty-eight people in total (correct answer)
3. C. Forty people standing only
4. D. Twenty-five people at tables

Answer: B — Sarah says the room seats thirty-eight with chairs and ten folding chairs can be added from storage, which brings the total to forty-eight people.

Q26. When can the staff begin setting up the room?

1. A. At seven thirty on the morning of the session (correct answer)
2. B. At noon on the previous day
3. C. At five o'clock on the same evening
4. D. Immediately after the projector is fixed

Answer: A — Sarah says setup can begin at seven thirty, which is a full hour before the training session starts that day.

Q27. Why does the worker show Rosa the older dogs?

1. A. They are cheaper to feed than puppies
2. B. They are easier to transport by car
3. C. They are calmer and need less training (correct answer)
4. D. They are all house-trained already

Answer: C — The worker recommends older dogs because puppies are lively and need patience and training, while Rosa wants a calm dog for her six-year-old daughter.

Q28. What does the adoption fee cover?

1. A. Three months of dog food
2. B. A new collar and lead
3. C. A free trial of training classes
4. D. Vaccinations and a veterinary check-up (correct answer)

Answer: D — The worker says the one-hundred-and-fifty-dollar adoption fee covers Pippa's vaccinations and a check-up at the veterinary clinic.

Q29. What happens if the dog does not settle in at home?

1. A. Rosa can return the dog for a full refund (correct answer)
2. B. The shelter keeps the whole fee
3. C. Rosa must find another owner herself
4. D. The dog moves to a foster home

Answer: A — Rosa is told she has a two-week trial period, and if the dog does not settle in she can bring it back for a full refund.

Q30. Why does Lena ask to change her appointment?

1. A. She has to be at work tomorrow (correct answer)
2. B. Her son is away on a school trip
3. C. The technician called in sick
4. D. She forgot the meter box code

Answer: A — Lena explains that she has to be at work tomorrow morning, so she asks to move the smart meter installation to the following Tuesday.

Q31. How long will the power be switched off during the visit?

1. A. For the entire morning
2. B. About twenty minutes while the meter is swapped (correct answer)
3. C. Until the next day at noon
4. D. Only a few seconds during a test

Answer: B — The representative says the technician switches off the power for about twenty minutes while the old meter is removed and the new one is installed.

Q32. What must Lena arrange for the day of the visit?

1. A. A spare key for the back door
2. B. Written permission from her landlord
3. C. A receipt from her previous bill
4. D. An adult at home and a clear driveway (correct answer)

Answer: D — Lena is told someone over eighteen must be home during the visit, and the driveway must be clear so the van can park near the meter box.

Q33. Why is Omar asking about the loan service?

1. A. His library card has expired
2. B. He cannot visit the central library
3. C. The branch lacks the full edition of the book (correct answer)
4. D. The book was damaged in transit

Answer: C — Omar wants the full edition of the harbour history, but the branch only holds the short edition, so he asks about the inter-library loan service.

Q34. How will the library notify Omar when the book arrives?

1. A. With a text message and an email (correct answer)
2. B. By post mail to his home
3. C. Through a note on the door
4. D. By fax to his office

Answer: A — The librarian says the library will send a text message to the number on Omar's account plus an email as a backup when the book arrives.

Q35. How long can Omar keep the borrowed book?

1. A. One week only, no renewal
2. B. Three weeks with one renewal (correct answer)
3. C. Until the end of the month
4. D. Six months without any limits

Answer: B — The librarian explains that Omar can keep the borrowed book for three weeks and renew it once, either online or by phone.

Q36. Why does Grace want to book the Saturday sunset tour?

1. A. To photograph the harbour birds
2. B. To propose a business deal
3. C. To take her parents sightseeing
4. D. To celebrate her sister's birthday (correct answer)

Answer: D — Grace calls to book the sunset boat tour for Saturday because she wants to celebrate her sister's birthday on the water that evening.

Q37. What is included in the ticket price?

1. A. A light buffet and one drink (correct answer)
2. B. Three meals and free parking
3. C. A private cabin for two
4. D. Goggles and a life jacket

Answer: A — The agent says the ticket includes a light buffet and one drink, while extra drinks are available for purchase at the bar on board.

Q38. What happens if the captain cancels the trip?

1. A. Passengers receive free blankets
2. B. The boat sails the next morning
3. C. Tickets move to the lower deck
4. D. Customers receive a full refund (correct answer)

Answer: D — The agent explains that the boat has a covered section and that passengers receive a full refund if the captain cancels the trip.

Q39. Why did the city begin restoration of the clock tower?

1. A. To install a new electric motor
2. B. To widen the viewing balcony
3. C. To replace the cracked bell
4. D. To repair the stone facing (correct answer)

Answer: D — The speaker says the city began a slow restoration of the stone facing, and the scaffolding will remain in place until spring.

Q40. How did the tower's clock run during Edgar Moss's time?

1. A. It was wound by hand twice a day (correct answer)
2. B. It ran on battery from the start
3. C. It was powered by the town dam
4. D. It stopped for a year in 1892

Answer: A — For the first forty years a man named Edgar Moss climbed the stairs twice a day to wind the clock mechanism by hand.

Q41. What happened to the clock in 1954?

1. A. The bell cracked in the cold
2. B. Lightning knocked it off by forty minutes (correct answer)
3. C. Workers repainted the four faces
4. D. The electric motor failed for a week

Answer: B — The speaker says a lightning strike in 1954 knocked the town clock off by forty minutes for one famous week.

Q42. What should a beginner do before buying equipment?

1. A. Buy a full hive in winter
2. B. Plant flowers over the whole garden
3. C. Check the local council rules first (correct answer)
4. D. Hire an experienced keeper

Answer: C — The speaker advises checking local council rules before buying equipment, because some councils require registration and a minimum distance from the neighbour's fence.

Q43. Why is a nucleus colony recommended for beginners?

1. A. It produces honey in the first week
2. B. It needs no hive or smoker
3. C. It can forage within ten kilometres
4. D. It grows slowly and is easier to manage (correct answer)

Answer: D — A nucleus colony is recommended for beginners because a young colony builds more slowly and is easier to handle than a full hive.

Q44. When is the best time to inspect a hive?

1. A. Early morning after heavy rain
2. B. At night when the bees sleep
3. C. On a warm afternoon when foragers are away (correct answer)
4. D. Every day at the very same hour

Answer: C — The speaker says to check the hive every ten days or so, always on a warm afternoon when most of the foragers are away from home.

Q45. What should you do if photos are stuck in a sticky album?

1. A. Pull them out quickly and firmly
2. B. Slide dental floss between the photo and the page (correct answer)
3. C. Soak the whole page in warm water
4. D. Throw the entire album away

Answer: B — For photos stuck in sticky albums, the speaker advises sliding a thin piece of dental floss between the photo and the page instead of pulling.

Q46. Why should old pictures not be kept in plastic bags?

1. A. Plastic bags trap moisture (correct answer)
2. B. They fade the black-and-white prints
3. C. They attract dust and insects
4. D. They turn the photos yellow

Answer: A — The speaker warns against plastic bags because they trap moisture, so photographs should be stored in pH-balanced boxes or sleeves.

Q47. What is recommended for the most important pictures?

1. A. Frame them in direct sunlight
2. B. Store them in the attic
3. C. Glue them into a new album
4. D. Keep a second copy at a relative's house (correct answer)

Answer: D — The speaker recommends copying the most important pictures onto a hard drive and keeping a second copy at a relative's house for safety.

Q48. How was the lighthouse's light powered in its earliest years?

1. A. By a gas burner
2. B. By a lamp burning whale oil (correct answer)
3. C. By electricity from the town
4. D. By a hand-cranked generator

Answer: B — The speaker explains that the original lamp burned whale oil and the keeper had to trim the wick every four hours in the early years.

Q49. What began happening in 1987?

1. A. The tower was painted for the first time
2. B. The last keeper retired the staircase
3. C. The light began operating automatically (correct answer)
4. D. Tours started running every morning

Answer: C — Automation came in 1987, when the last keeper left and the light began switching itself on and off without any human help.

Q50. What will the trust do next month?

1. A. Start painting the outside of the tower (correct answer)
2. B. Replace the spiral staircase
3. C. Repair the rusted railing
4. D. Close the tower for six weeks

Answer: A — The speaker says the trust will begin painting the exterior next month, a job that takes six weeks and needs fine weather.

Q1. The night-shift technician ___ the control panel for almost two hours when the warning light finally went dark.

1. A. has been monitoring
2. B. had been monitoring (correct answer)
3. C. is monitoring
4. D. will have been monitoring

Answer: B — The past perfect continuous describes an action still in progress at a later moment in the past; the light went dark after the monitoring had been under way for two hours.

Q2. By the end of next month, the final drafts ___ to the review board for the second time.

1. A. are forwarded
2. B. were forwarded
3. C. will have been forwarded (correct answer)
4. D. have been forwarded

Answer: C — The future perfect passive shows an action that will be completed before a stated future time, and 'by the end of next month' marks exactly that deadline.

Q3. If the courier ___ the delivery slip, the parcel would not be sitting in the depot now.

1. A. had not torn (correct answer)
2. B. did not tear
3. C. does not tear
4. D. has not torn

Answer: A — A mixed conditional joins a past condition ('had not torn') to a present result ('would not be sitting'), showing how an earlier action still affects the present.

Q4. If the lighthouse ___ automated, a keeper would have to live on the island to sound the fog horn.

1. A. is not
2. B. was not
3. C. will not be
4. D. were not (correct answer)

Answer: D — A second conditional uses the 'were' subjunctive for an unreal present condition, so 'were not automated' describes a situation that is not actually true.

Q5. Ravi gave ___ honest account of the delay to the project manager.

1. A. an (correct answer)
2. B. a
3. C. the
4. D. every

Answer: A — 'An' is used before a word that begins with a vowel sound, and 'honest' begins with a silent 'h', so its first sound is the vowel /o/.

Q6. Visitors ___ handle the mineral specimens in display case seven.

1. A. need not
2. B. are not to (correct answer)
3. C. might not
4. D. had not to

Answer: B — 'Are not to' expresses a prohibition set by a rule: it tells visitors that handling the specimens is not permitted under any circumstances.

Q7. You ___ the dishes so early; the guests are not arriving until nine.

1. A. need not have washed (correct answer)
2. B. could not have washed
3. C. must not have washed
4. D. should not washed

Answer: A — 'Need not have washed' means the washing was done but was unnecessary, which fits the news that the guests will arrive much later than expected.

Q8. The newer ferry is ___ than the old one, but it burns far less fuel.

1. A. slightly slower (correct answer)
2. B. the slowest
3. C. slower than
4. D. slowly

Answer: A — A comparative with 'than' compares two things, and 'slightly' modifies that comparative; 'the slowest' would only be used for three or more.

Q9. The registrar announced that the certificates ___ by express post the following day.

1. A. have been sent
2. B. will be sent
3. C. would be sent (correct answer)
4. D. are sent

Answer: C — In reported speech after a past reporting verb, 'will be sent' backshifts to 'would be sent', and 'the following day' confirms the past perspective.

Q10. The runway ___ when the fire drill interrupted the ground crew.

1. A. resurfaced
2. B. was being resurfaced (correct answer)
3. C. had resurfaced
4. D. is resurfaced

Answer: B — The past continuous passive 'was being resurfaced' shows the runway receiving an action that was in progress when the drill interrupted the crew.

Q11. Not since the 1953 flood ___ the river levels this high.

1. A. the gauges have recorded
2. B. the gauges recorded
3. C. the gauges have been recorded
4. D. have the gauges recorded (correct answer)

Answer: D — 'Not since' at the front of the sentence triggers subject-verb inversion, so the auxiliary 'have' moves before the subject 'the gauges'.

Q12. The funding agreement requires that every recipient ___ a progress report each quarter.

1. A. submits
2. B. submit (correct answer)
3. C. has submitted
4. D. is submitting

Answer: B — 'Require that' takes the subjunctive, which uses the base form of the verb regardless of the subject, so 'submit' is the only correct form here.

Q13. The auditors found that ___ the invoices from March were missing, so the books balanced.

1. A. almost all of
2. B. almost none of (correct answer)
3. C. almost half of
4. D. almost any of

Answer: B — 'Almost none of' correctly quantifies the invoices as almost completely present, which is why the books balanced at the end of the audit.

Q14. The quarry ___ the stone for the courthouse steps was cut has lain idle since 1931.

1. A. which from
2. B. that from
3. C. from which (correct answer)
4. D. from what

Answer: C — A preposition that belongs to a relative clause moves before the relative pronoun, so 'from which' correctly joins the quarry to the stone cut from it.

Q15. The bakery had to ___ the order for the wedding cake after its main oven failed.

1. A. turn down (correct answer)
2. B. turn up
3. C. turn over
4. D. turn off

Answer: A — 'Turn down' is the phrasal verb meaning to refuse or reject; the bakery had to refuse the order because the broken oven made baking impossible.

Q16. The report was written in plain language ___ every committee member could follow the figures.

1. A. so that (correct answer)
2. B. as if
3. C. in case
4. D. even though

Answer: A — 'So that' introduces a purpose clause explaining why the report was written in plain language: to make the figures understandable to everyone.

Q17. The mill ___ grain for the region since 1879, surviving two fires and a flood.

1. A. had ground
2. B. has ground (correct answer)
3. C. ground
4. D. grinds

Answer: B — The present perfect with 'since 1879' connects a process that began in the past and still continues, and 'ground' is the correct past participle of 'grind'.

Q18. The inspector objected ___ the plan to store solvents next to the boiler room.

1. A. about
2. B. to (correct answer)
3. C. against
4. D. over

Answer: B — The verb 'object' is followed by the preposition 'to' when naming what someone opposes, so 'objected to the plan' is the only correct combination.

Q19. I wish you ___ the sawdust off the bench before you start cutting.

1. A. brushed
2. B. will brush
3. C. would brush (correct answer)
4. D. brush

Answer: C — 'Wish plus would' expresses a polite complaint or request about another person's behaviour, and the brushing has not happened yet.

Q20. The lease stipulates that the deposit ___ within five business days of signing.

1. A. is returned
2. B. will be returned
3. C. be returned (correct answer)
4. D. has been returned

Answer: C — 'Stipulate that' takes the subjunctive, so the passive base form 'be returned' is used after 'that' without any shift of tense.

Q21. What purpose does the passage give for building the vault inside a mountain?

1. A. To protect backup copies of the world's seed collections (correct answer)
2. B. To give tourists a place to visit
3. C. To keep seeds near the farms that grow them
4. D. To replace every national gene bank

Answer: A — The passage says the vault works as a backup for the world's gene banks: if a national collection is destroyed, the seeds can be rebuilt from the Arctic copies.

Q22. How does the vault keep its storage chambers cold?

1. A. With large electric freezers
2. B. With ice brought up from the sea
3. C. The permafrost keeps them at a steady temperature without machinery (correct answer)
4. D. By opening the doors during the night

Answer: C — The permafrost keeps the storage chambers at a steady temperature with no machinery at all, which is why the vault needs no mechanical cooling.

Q23. Why must gene banks plant and check their seeds from time to time?

1. A. To increase their numbers
2. B. To confirm that they still germinate, since viability declines over time (correct answer)
3. C. Because seeds stay alive forever
4. D. To sell the seeds to local farmers

Answer: B — Storage slows down aging but does not stop it, so every gene bank must test samples by planting a few seeds to confirm that they still germinate.

Q24. Why does the passage say modern agriculture rests on a 'narrow base'?

1. A. Because most wheat descends from a small set of high-yield strains (correct answer)
2. B. Because soils are becoming too salty
3. C. Because gene banks store too many seeds
4. D. Because farmers grow only vegetables

Answer: A — The passage says most of the wheat grown worldwide descends from a small set of high-yield strains, so a new disease could threaten harvests across whole continents.

Q25. What are landraces, according to the passage?

1. A. Local forms of crops that may carry useful genes (correct answer)
2. B. Machines used to harvest grain
3. C. Diseases that attack stored seeds
4. D. The coldest chambers inside the vault

Answer: A — Landraces are the local forms of crops that often carry genes for drought tolerance, pest resistance, or unusual flavours, which breeders seek out.

Q26. What criticism of seed banks does the passage mention?

1. A. They are too expensive to build
2. B. They are open to members of the public
3. C. They refuse to store wheat seeds
4. D. They cannot replace living fields or farmers' knowledge (correct answer)

Answer: D — Critics answer that a vault of frozen seeds cannot replace living fields, the farmers who select new seeds, or the knowledge that travels with them.

Q27. What does the example of the 1990s crop disease show?

1. A. That gene banks often fail
2. B. That farmers reject new varieties
3. C. That fungi destroy all root crops
4. D. That a resistant landrace recovered from a bank helped rebuild harvests (correct answer)

Answer: D — When a fungal disease struck the region's main root crop in the 1990s, researchers recovered a resistant landrace from a bank and helped farmers rebuild their harvests.

Q28. How do supporters describe the vault at the end of the passage?

1. A. As a museum of farming history
2. B. As insurance that nobody hopes to use but everyone is relieved exists (correct answer)
3. C. As a laboratory for new crops
4. D. As a tourist attraction

Answer: B — Supporters describe the vault simply as insurance: nobody hopes to use it, but everybody is relieved that it is there.

Q29. According to the passage, when does a tide pool form?

1. A. When seawater is trapped in hollows as the tide falls (correct answer)
2. B. When rain floods the rocky shore
3. C. When waves break over the cliffs
4. D. When the tide rises over the sand

Answer: A — When the tide falls, seawater is trapped in hollows and basins of the shore, and each trapped pocket becomes a tide pool.

Q30. Which change does the passage say can happen in a shallow pool during one afternoon?

1. A. The pool doubles in depth
2. B. All the salt disappears
3. C. The water temperature climbs by more than ten degrees (correct answer)
4. D. The pool freezes over

Answer: C — Sun warms the shallow water until its temperature climbs by more than ten degrees in a single afternoon, one of the rapid swings the passage describes.

Q31. Why can oxygen become scarce in a pool at night?

1. A. The tide removes it
2. B. The seaweed and animals consume it (correct answer)
3. C. Rain adds too much nitrogen
4. D. The fish breathe it out

Answer: B — At night the seaweed and animals consume so much oxygen that sleepy fish may hover near the surface gasping for air.

Q32. How do barnacles survive when a pool is exposed to the air?

1. A. They swim to deeper water
2. B. They clamp their shells shut (correct answer)
3. C. They bury themselves in sand
4. D. They absorb water from the sun

Answer: B — Barnacles clamp their shells shut against the drying air, one of the adaptations that let animals survive between tides.

Q33. What did the survey of twelve pools find about the deeper pools?

1. A. They contained no animals at all
2. B. They were warmer than the shallow pools
3. C. They changed temperature less and held nearly three times as many species (correct answer)
4. D. They dried out every afternoon

Answer: C — Deeper pools near the low-tide line changed by only three degrees while shallow pools swung fourteen, and the deeper pools held nearly three times as many species.

Q34. What does the passage say about sea stars and small fish?

1. A. They live in the highest pools
2. B. They feed on the hermit crabs
3. C. They avoid water altogether
4. D. They appeared almost only in the deeper basins (correct answer)

Answer: D — The survey found that sea stars and small fish appeared almost only in the deeper basins, while the high pools belonged to hardy barnacles and snails.

Q35. Why do marine biologists describe tide pools as natural laboratories?

1. A. Because experiments are banned there
2. B. Because the water is always calm
3. C. Because only experts may enter them
4. D. Because ecological ideas can be watched in one small place (correct answer)

Answer: D — Biologists call tide pools natural laboratories because many ecological ideas, such as competition for space, can be watched within a single visit.

Q36. Which of the following does the passage present as a threat to tide pools?

1. A. The daily rhythm of the tide
2. B. Competition between species
3. C. Careless visitors turning over rocks (correct answer)
4. D. The arrival of winter storms

Answer: C — A single careless visitor who turns over rocks, or pollution from a nearby drain, can empty a pool of life within a season.

Q37. According to the council proposal, how long does the journey across the river take today?

1. A. A nine-minute ferry trip
2. B. A six-minute walk
3. C. A twenty-five-minute bus ride (correct answer)
4. D. A two-hour drive

Answer: C — The proposal says the same journey requires a twenty-five-minute bus ride across the northern road bridge, while the new crossing would shorten it to a six-minute walk.

Q38. What does the council say the bridge will carry?

1. A. Only pedestrians and cyclists (correct answer)
2. B. Cars, buses and lorries
3. C. Trains and trams
4. D. River barges

Answer: A — The proposal states that the bridge would carry pedestrians and cyclists only, rising sixty metres so that river traffic passes beneath without delay.

Q39. How is the bridge project to be funded?

1. A. Entirely by the federal grant
2. B. By tolls paid by cyclists
3. C. By private investors
4. D. 40 percent by a federal grant and the rest through municipal bonds (correct answer)

Answer: D — The council estimates the project at 48 million dollars, with 40 percent covered by a federal infrastructure grant and the remainder raised through municipal bonds.

Q40. What does the residents' association say about Millbank Park?

1. A. It should be closed during construction
2. B. The bridge would land in the middle of it and shade the play area
3. C. It is too far from the railway station
4. D. It already has access roads for the bridge (correct answer)

Answer: D — The association says the bridge would land in the middle of Millbank Park, shading the play area and funnelling late-night cyclists past bedroom windows.

Q41. What does the association propose for the western landing?

1. A. Move it two hundred metres downstream to the old ferry slip (correct answer)
2. B. Keep it in the middle of Millbank Park
3. C. Build a second bridge for cars
4. D. Place it on the northern road bridge

Answer: A — The association asks the council to move the western landing two hundred metres downstream to the old ferry slip, where access roads already exist.

Q42. What demand does the association make about the ferry crew?

1. A. The council must publish a plan for those workers if the bridge is approved (correct answer)
2. B. The ferry must stop running immediately
3. C. Ferry fares must be doubled
4. D. The ferry must carry bicycles free of charge

Answer: A — The association notes the ferry employs fourteen crew members and demands that the council publish a plan for those workers if the bridge is approved.

Q43. What do both texts agree about?

1. A. The bridge should carry cars
2. B. The ferry must close this year
3. C. That construction should begin immediately
4. D. That a river crossing deserves serious consideration (correct answer)

Answer: D — The council formally proposes the crossing while the association welcomes the idea of a river crossing but questions the site, so both treat the project as worth discussing.

Q44. According to the board, why would uniforms improve punctuality?

1. A. Students would no longer miss the bus
2. B. Students would no longer spend time choosing outfits (correct answer)
3. C. Staff could spot outsiders more easily
4. D. Classes would start earlier in the morning

Answer: B — The board argues that uniforms improve punctuality because students no longer spend time choosing outfits in the morning before school.

Q45. What support does the board promise to low-income families?

1. A. Money to buy designer brands
2. B. Free shoes and bags
3. C. Two free sets plus a second-hand exchange (correct answer)
4. D. A discount on school meals

Answer: C — The board would provide two free sets to families registered in its low-income programme and would run a second-hand exchange twice a year.

Q46. What does the board say about neighbouring districts?

1. A. They abandoned uniforms after one year
2. B. They held no public consultations at all
3. C. They spent 85 dollars per student on uniforms
4. D. Their principals report fewer dress-code disputes in the mornings (correct answer)

Answer: D — Officials note that two neighbouring districts already run uniform policies and that their principals report fewer dress-code disputes in the mornings.

Q47. What did the student council's survey find?

1. A. All students support the uniforms
2. B. Uniforms reduce bullying
3. C. 68 percent of students oppose mandatory uniforms (correct answer)
4. D. Students want more dress-code rules

Answer: C — The council's survey of 600 students found that 68 percent oppose mandatory uniforms, a key piece of evidence in its response.

Q48. What argument does the council make about the second-hand exchange?

1. A. It is too expensive to run
2. B. It marks out the families who use it (correct answer)
3. C. It should be held every month
4. D. It saves families a great deal of money

Answer: B — The council argues that the second-hand exchange marks out the families who use it, which undermines the claim that uniforms reduce visible differences.

Q49. What alternative does the council propose instead of uniforms?

1. A. Requiring all students to wear coats
2. B. A stricter uniform with more items
3. C. Closing the school during the mornings
4. D. A simple dress code plus a clothing allowance paid to every family (correct answer)

Answer: D — The council proposes a simple dress code banning logos and torn clothing, a clothing allowance for every family, and funds for an anti-bullying programme.

Q50. What do the two texts disagree about most directly?

1. A. Whether the school should exist
2. B. Whether the board consulted anyone
3. C. Whether students should attend classes
4. D. Whether a compulsory uniform is the right solution (correct answer)

Answer: D — The board proposes a compulsory uniform as the solution while the council argues the policy attacks the symptom rather than the cause and offers a different approach.