MET Mock Test 2 - Questions and Answers

All 50 listening and 50 reading questions from this full mock test, with the correct answer and a full explanation for each one. Writing and speaking tasks are listed below the multiple-choice sections. To take this mock under real test conditions - with the official clock, locked sections and an automatic score - open the interactive mock tests page.

Listening - 50 questions (35 minutes)

In the real MET each recording plays once. Here you control the player — play, pause and replay as needed.

Part 1 — short conversations

Recording
Long conversation

Woman: Have you had your flu shot yet this year?
Man: Not yet. I keep putting it off.
Woman: The pharmacy downtown is offering them free with most insurance plans. There was no line when I went at lunchtime.
Man: That is good to know. My doctor's office only has appointments next week.
Woman: You should go today if you can. The pharmacist mentioned a shipment delay next month.
Man: I will stop by after work.

Q1. Where does the man plan to get his flu shot today?

  1. A. At his doctor's office
  2. B. At the community health centre
  3. C. At the hospital emergency department
  4. D. At a downtown pharmacy (correct answer)

Answer: D — The man says he will stop by the downtown pharmacy after work because it offers the flu shot free with most insurance plans.

Recording
Long conversation

Man: The number 12 bus is running twenty minutes late today.
Woman: Again? That is the third delay this week.
Man: The transit office said a bridge inspection is slowing every route that crosses the river.
Woman: I may start cycling instead. The bike path is faster in the morning.
Man: It is supposed to rain tomorrow, so maybe wait before you decide.
Woman: I will check the forecast tonight.

Q2. What does the man suggest the woman do before cycling to work?

  1. A. Cycle anyway despite the rain
  2. B. Take a taxi instead of the bus
  3. C. Wait and check the weather forecast first (correct answer)
  4. D. Ask the transit office for a refund

Answer: C — The man notes that rain is forecast for tomorrow and suggests the woman check the forecast before deciding to cycle to work.

Recording
Long conversation

Woman: The heating in my apartment stopped working last night.
Man: Did you report it to the building manager?
Woman: I left a message, but I have not heard back.
Man: You should call the emergency maintenance line instead. They respond much faster for heating problems in winter.
Woman: Good idea. I will call them right now.
Man: Ask for the supervisor if they cannot fix it today.

Q3. What does the man advise the woman to do about the broken heating?

  1. A. Call the emergency maintenance line (correct answer)
  2. B. File a written complaint with the council
  3. C. Wait for the building manager to reply
  4. D. Buy a portable heater for the night

Answer: A — The man says the emergency maintenance line responds faster for heating problems in winter and advises the woman to call it right away.

Recording
Long conversation

Man: Have you completed the new fire safety training module?
Woman: Not yet. The deadline is Friday, right?
Man: Yes, and it only takes about forty minutes.
Woman: I will finish it tonight. Does it cover the evacuation route for our floor?
Man: It does, and there is a short quiz at the end.
Woman: I should pass the quiz without any trouble, then.

Q4. What does the fire safety training module include according to the man?

  1. A. The correct use of kitchen fire extinguishers
  2. B. The evacuation route for their floor and a short quiz (correct answer)
  3. C. New alarm testing schedules for the building
  4. D. A list of emergency contacts for the company

Answer: B — The man says the module covers the evacuation route for their floor and ends with a short quiz that the woman expects to pass easily.

Recording
Long conversation

Woman: The neighbourhood cleanup is this Saturday morning.
Man: I remember. We are collecting rubbish along the park paths.
Woman: The council is providing gloves and bags, but volunteers should bring their own water.
Man: What time does it start?
Woman: We meet at the community hall at eight thirty. The cleanup usually takes about two hours.
Man: I will be there, and my sister wants to come too.

Q5. What should volunteers bring to the neighbourhood cleanup?

  1. A. Gloves and rubbish bags
  2. B. Gardening tools
  3. C. Their own water (correct answer)
  4. D. Hats and sunscreen

Answer: C — The woman says the council supplies gloves and bags, so volunteers only need to bring their own water to the Saturday morning cleanup.

Recording
Long conversation

Man: The recycling truck left a notice on our bin today.
Woman: Why? What does it say?
Man: It says the load was contaminated, probably because of greasy pizza boxes.
Woman: I did not realise those cannot be recycled.
Man: They can only go in the general waste. The notice says we can request a reminder card.
Woman: That would help us avoid the same mistake.

Q6. Why did the recycling truck leave a notice on the bin?

  1. A. The bin was put out on the wrong collection day
  2. B. The load was contaminated with greasy pizza boxes (correct answer)
  3. C. The bin was too heavy for the lifting arm
  4. D. The lid of the bin was not closed properly

Answer: B — The notice says the recycling load was contaminated, and the man believes greasy pizza boxes caused it because they cannot be recycled.

Recording
Long conversation

Woman: I forgot my dentist appointment this morning.
Man: Did they charge you a missed appointment fee?
Woman: Not this time, but the receptionist said they will if it happens again.
Man: You should set a reminder on your phone while you are still at the front desk.
Woman: I already did. My next visit is in six months.
Man: At least the reminder problem is solved.

Q7. What will happen if the woman misses another dentist appointment?

  1. A. She will have to find a different dentist
  2. B. She will be charged a missed appointment fee (correct answer)
  3. C. Her appointment will be moved to another month
  4. D. She will need a referral from her doctor

Answer: B — The receptionist told the woman that a second missed appointment would lead to a missed appointment fee, so she set a reminder on her phone.

Recording
Long conversation

Man: I just got a parking ticket outside the train station.
Woman: Did the meter run out?
Man: No, I parked in the loading zone without noticing the sign.
Woman: Are you going to appeal it?
Man: The fine is only forty dollars, and challenging it takes a whole morning. I think I will just pay it.
Woman: That is probably the cheaper option.

Q8. Why does the man choose to pay the parking fine instead of appealing?

  1. A. The council rejects almost all appeals
  2. B. He cannot provide photos of the parking spot
  3. C. His work schedule prevents him from attending a hearing
  4. D. Challenging the ticket would take a whole morning and cost more than the fine (correct answer)

Answer: D — The man says the fine is only forty dollars while appealing takes a whole morning, so paying the ticket directly is the cheaper option.

Recording
Long conversation

Woman: The landlord changed the rent payment date to the first of the month.
Man: I wish they had mentioned it in the meeting.
Woman: It was in the notice that was posted on the door. The change starts next month.
Man: That gives me enough time to adjust my automatic payment.
Woman: As long as you update it before the first.
Man: I will set it up this weekend.

Q9. When does the new rent payment date take effect?

  1. A. Immediately, from this month
  2. B. After the next tenants' meeting
  3. C. From the first of next month (correct answer)
  4. D. When the current lease is renewed

Answer: C — The woman says the change to paying rent on the first of the month starts next month, giving the man time to update his automatic payment.

Recording
Long conversation

Man: Did you finish the data privacy course for new employees?
Woman: Almost. It is just the final section.
Man: Remember, the system locks the course at five o'clock Friday.
Woman: I thought we had until the end of the month.
Man: The deadline was moved up because the manager wants everyone certified before the audit.
Woman: I will clear my afternoon to complete it.

Q10. Why was the training deadline moved to Friday?

  1. A. The course provider is closing the platform
  2. B. The manager wants everyone certified before the audit (correct answer)
  3. C. A new version of the course is being released
  4. D. The training room is booked for the whole month

Answer: B — The man explains that the manager moved the deadline forward because everyone must be certified before the audit, so the woman will finish on Friday afternoon.

Recording
Long conversation

Woman: We are planning a block party for the last Saturday of the month.
Man: Will the road be closed for the whole day?
Woman: Only from noon until six. We need to get a permit from the council first.
Man: Has anyone applied for the permit yet?
Woman: I submitted the application yesterday. Neighbours are bringing food and music equipment.
Man: Count me in for setup duty.

Q11. What must the organisers do before the block party can go ahead?

  1. A. Book a band through the council
  2. B. Get a permit from the council (correct answer)
  3. C. Buy a road closure sign
  4. D. Collect a fee from every neighbour

Answer: B — The woman says the road may only be closed from noon until six and that a council permit is required, and she applied for it yesterday.

Recording
Long conversation

Man: The company installed two charging stations in the staff car park.
Woman: Really? I have been charging my car at home every night.
Man: The stations are free for employees, but you must book a time slot online.
Woman: I will book one for tomorrow morning.
Man: Slots fill quickly, so book at least a day in advance.
Woman: Thanks for the tip.

Q12. What does the man tell the woman about the new charging stations?

  1. A. Employees must book a time slot online, and slots fill quickly (correct answer)
  2. B. They are reserved for company vehicles only
  3. C. They are free only for the first month
  4. D. They require a cable sold at reception

Answer: A — The stations are free for employees, but the man warns that a time slot must be booked online and that slots fill quickly, so booking a day ahead helps.

Recording
Long conversation

Woman: The pharmacist said this allergy medicine may cause drowsiness.
Man: Should I take it in the morning, then?
Woman: No, probably at night, after you finish work.
Man: Will it interfere with my other tablets?
Woman: The pharmacist checked and said it is safe with them.
Man: I will start tonight and see how I feel tomorrow.
Woman: Good. Remember to store the tablets in a cool, dry place away from direct sunlight.
Man: I will keep them in the kitchen drawer, out of the sun.

Q13. When does the pharmacist advise taking the allergy medicine?

  1. A. In the morning with breakfast
  2. B. At night, after work, because it may cause drowsiness (correct answer)
  3. C. Only when symptoms become severe
  4. D. Twice a day together with meals

Answer: B — The woman notes the medicine may cause drowsiness, so she advises the man to take it at night after work, and the pharmacist confirmed it is safe with his tablets.

Recording
Long conversation

Man: The washing machine in the building basement broke down again.
Woman: The repair person is coming on Tuesday morning.
Man: Until then, is there anywhere else we can wash clothes?
Woman: There is a laundrette two blocks away that opens early.
Man: Do they have machines that take cards?
Woman: Yes, and the prices are printed on the wall near the entrance.

Q14. When will the basement washing machine be repaired?

  1. A. Tomorrow morning
  2. B. Next weekend
  3. C. On Tuesday morning (correct answer)
  4. D. The repair person has not given a date

Answer: C — The woman says the repair person is coming on Tuesday morning, so until then residents can use the laundrette two blocks away.

Recording
Long conversation

Woman: The charity fun run is raising money for the local hospital.
Man: Is the entry fee a donation?
Woman: Yes, every dollar from registration goes to the children's ward.
Man: How long is the course?
Woman: Five kilometres, with a shorter two-kilometre option for families.
Man: I will sign up for the longer route and bring my running shoes.

Q15. What happens to the money raised from fun run registrations?

  1. A. It covers the cost of road permits
  2. B. It is split between two charities
  3. C. It pays for participants' running shirts
  4. D. It goes to the children's ward of the local hospital (correct answer)

Answer: D — The woman says every dollar from registration goes to the children's ward, and the run offers five-kilometre and two-kilometre family routes.

Recording
Long conversation

Man: The air quality alert is back for tomorrow.
Woman: That means I should keep the windows closed at home.
Man: The school also moved the outdoor sports day indoors.
Woman: I hope it clears up by the weekend picnic.
Man: The forecast says the smoke should blow away by Friday afternoon.
Woman: That is a relief.
Man: The advice page also recommends keeping car windows shut during the alert.
Woman: I will remember that on my way to work.
Man: It should only last a couple of days.

Q16. How does the man respond to the woman's worry about the picnic?

  1. A. He reports that the smoke should clear by Friday afternoon (correct answer)
  2. B. He suggests moving the picnic indoors
  3. C. He offers to buy an air purifier
  4. D. He cancels the picnic for this weekend

Answer: A — The man reassures the woman by reporting that the forecast says the smoke should blow away by Friday afternoon, before the weekend picnic.

Recording
Long conversation

Woman: My new glasses are giving me a headache.
Man: That often happens when the prescription is new.
Woman: How long should I give my eyes to adjust?
Man: Usually a few days. If the headache continues after a week, go back to the optometrist.
Woman: I will wear them for reading only until then.
Man: Make sure you use them for distance too, or the adjustment takes longer.

Q17. What does the man say about the headache from the new glasses?

  1. A. It means the prescription is wrong
  2. B. It will only go away if the glasses are returned
  3. C. It is common with a new prescription and should settle within a few days (correct answer)
  4. D. It is caused by wearing them only for reading

Answer: C — The man says headaches are common with a new prescription and advises returning to the optometrist if the headache continues after a week.

Recording
Long conversation

Man: Did you see the notice about the bus stop on Main Street?
Woman: Yes. They are moving it to the corner near the library.
Man: That means I will have to walk a few extra minutes.
Woman: The new stop has a shelter, which the old one never had.
Man: That is a fair trade for the longer walk.
Woman: The change starts next Monday.

Q18. What is the advantage of the new bus stop location?

  1. A. It is closer to the shopping centre
  2. B. It reduces the walking distance for the man
  3. C. It has a shelter that the old stop lacked (correct answer)
  4. D. It allows two buses to stop at the same time

Answer: C — The woman points out that the new stop near the library has a shelter, which the man accepts as a fair trade for the extra walking.

Recording
Long conversation

Man: The school planting day is happening this Sunday.
Woman: I saw the flyer. Parents are invited to help plant trees around the playground.
Man: Do we need to bring our own tools?
Woman: No, the school is supplying gloves, spades, and seedlings.
Man: Should I bring anything at all?
Woman: Sunscreen and a water bottle. The planting starts at nine.
Man: I will be there.

Q19. What should parents bring to the school planting day?

  1. A. Gloves and spades
  2. B. Seedlings and mulch
  3. C. Snacks for the children
  4. D. Sunscreen and a water bottle (correct answer)

Answer: D — The school supplies gloves, spades, and seedlings, while the woman adds that parents should arrive at nine with sunscreen and a water bottle.

Recording
Long conversation

Woman: The water restrictions are starting next week.
Man: That means we cannot water the lawn during the day.
Woman: Gardens can only be watered in the early morning or evening.
Man: Will the restrictions affect the car washing business?
Woman: Car washes that recycle water are exempt.
Man: Good, I will not have to change my routine much.
Woman: The notice also asks residents to report leaking taps and pipes.
Man: I saw a dripping tap at the community park last week. I will report it on the website tonight.

Q20. Which of these will be allowed under the new water restrictions?

  1. A. Watering gardens in the early morning or evening (correct answer)
  2. B. Washing the family car at home with a hose
  3. C. Watering the lawn in the middle of the day
  4. D. Filling a backyard swimming pool daily

Answer: A — The woman says gardens may only be watered in the early morning or evening, while car washes that recycle water are exempt from the restrictions.

Part 2 — longer conversations

Long conversation

Receptionist: Good morning, Greenfield Medical Clinic. How can I help you?
Patient: Hi, I am calling about my allergy test results. I had the skin test done two weeks ago.
Receptionist: Let me pull up your file. Can I have your full name and date of birth?
Patient: Daniel Reeves, June 14, 1990.
Receptionist: Thank you. The results are ready, but I am not able to share them over the phone. You will need to see a doctor to go through them.
Patient: That is a problem. The doctor who ordered the test is on leave for three weeks.
Receptionist: I can book you with Doctor Chen instead. She reviews allergy results every Wednesday afternoon.
Patient: Will I need to prepare anything?
Receptionist: Bring a list of any medications you take and note down when your symptoms are at their worst. The appointment takes about thirty minutes.
Patient: Could I also ask about the allergy injection I mentioned last time?
Receptionist: Doctor Chen handles those too. If she approves the injection plan, the nurse can schedule your first dose the same day.
Patient: That saves me an extra visit, then.
Receptionist: Yes. Would you prefer next Wednesday at two thirty or four o'clock?
Patient: Four o'clock works better for me.
Receptionist: Done. You will get a text reminder the day before.

Q21. Why does the receptionist refuse to share the allergy results over the phone?

  1. A. The results have not come back from the laboratory yet
  2. B. The results must be discussed with a doctor in person (correct answer)
  3. C. The patient forgot to give his date of birth
  4. D. Only the doctor who ordered the test may read them

Answer: B — The receptionist says results cannot be shared over the phone and must be discussed with a doctor, so she books the patient with Doctor Chen, who reviews allergy results on Wednesdays.

Q22. What does the patient need to bring to the appointment?

  1. A. His health insurance card and a referral form
  2. B. A record of his previous allergy injections
  3. C. A list of his medications and notes about when his symptoms are worst (correct answer)
  4. D. The results from his last blood test

Answer: C — The receptionist tells the patient to bring a list of any medications he takes and to note when his symptoms are at their worst for the thirty-minute appointment.

Q23. What appointment does the patient finally book?

  1. A. Wednesday at four o'clock, with a possible first allergy injection the same day (correct answer)
  2. B. Wednesday at two thirty with Doctor Chen
  3. C. Thursday at four o'clock with the nurse
  4. D. Friday morning with the clinic's general practitioner

Answer: A — The patient chooses four o'clock next Wednesday, and the receptionist says the first allergy injection dose can be scheduled the same day if Doctor Chen approves the plan.

Long conversation

Resident: Hello, I am calling about the new route 41 timetable.
Agent: You have reached the transit information line. What would you like to know?
Resident: My street used to be on route 41, but the new map shows the bus turning at Walnut Avenue.
Agent: That is correct. Route 41 was rerouted to serve the new hospital district, and the change starts next Monday.
Resident: That leaves me with a twenty-five minute walk to the nearest stop.
Agent: I understand it is inconvenient. The rerouting is part of a six-month trial.
Resident: Is there a chance the old route will come back?
Agent: The council will review ridership numbers and passenger feedback after the trial.
Resident: How can I give feedback about the change?
Agent: You can fill in the online form on our website, or call this line before the end of the trial.
Resident: Would it help if my neighbours also complained?
Agent: Feedback from several households in the same street carries more weight in the review.
Resident: I will let them know. One more thing, does any other bus still pass near my street?
Agent: Route 18 runs along Cedar Road, two blocks north. It operates every twenty minutes.
Resident: That is not too far. Thanks for your help.

Q24. Why was route 41 changed?

  1. A. To serve the new hospital district (correct answer)
  2. B. To shorten travel time to the city centre
  3. C. To fix complaints about crowded buses
  4. D. To connect with route 18 at Cedar Road

Answer: A — The agent explains that route 41 was rerouted to serve the new hospital district and that the change is part of a six-month trial starting next Monday.

Q25. How can residents influence the final decision about the route?

  1. A. By signing a petition at the transit office
  2. B. By voting in the council election next month
  3. C. By completing the online feedback form or calling the information line (correct answer)
  4. D. By attending the hospital district opening ceremony

Answer: C — The agent says the council reviews ridership numbers and passenger feedback after the six-month trial, and residents can give feedback online or by phone.

Q26. Which statement about route 18 is true?

  1. A. It replaces route 41 on the resident's street
  2. B. It runs along Cedar Road every twenty minutes (correct answer)
  3. C. It stops at the hospital every ten minutes
  4. D. It only operates on weekdays

Answer: B — The agent tells the resident that route 18 runs along Cedar Road, two blocks north, and that it operates every twenty minutes.

Long conversation

Manager: Thanks for coming in. Your lease expires at the end of next month, so we should talk about renewing.
Tenant: I would like to stay. I just have a few questions.
Manager: Go ahead.
Tenant: First, the rent. The notice mentions an increase of thirty dollars a week.
Manager: That is correct. It brings your unit in line with other two-bedroom apartments in the building.
Tenant: Is the increase negotiable at all?
Manager: I can offer a twelve-month lease at the current rate if you sign by Friday. That is the best I can do.
Tenant: I will take that offer. Second, the heating in the bedroom has been making a strange noise since winter.
Manager: We had a technician look at it last month. He ordered a part that should arrive this week.
Tenant: And the parking space I rent? Will that change?
Manager: It will stay the same, and the fee is not going up.
Tenant: Last question. Can I replace the curtains in the living room?
Manager: Yes, as long as you keep the original ones and reinstall them when you move out.
Tenant: Perfect. Where do I sign?

Q27. What must the tenant do to keep the current rent?

  1. A. Accept a longer lease with a higher deposit
  2. B. Pay the new weekly rate starting next month
  3. C. Sign a twelve-month lease before Friday (correct answer)
  4. D. Give up the rented parking space

Answer: C — The manager offers a twelve-month lease at the current rate if the tenant signs by Friday, which the tenant accepts as the best available option.

Q28. What is the current situation with the bedroom heating?

  1. A. The manager will install a new heater next week
  2. B. The technician fixed it last month
  3. C. The tenant must pay for the repair himself
  4. D. A replacement part has been ordered and should arrive this week (correct answer)

Answer: D — The manager says a technician examined the heating last month and ordered a part that is expected to arrive this week, so the repair is in progress.

Q29. What condition applies to changing the living room curtains?

  1. A. The original curtains must be kept and reinstalled before moving out (correct answer)
  2. B. The new curtains must be made of fire-proof fabric
  3. C. The new curtains must stay when the tenant leaves
  4. D. The building manager must choose the colour

Answer: A — The tenant may replace the curtains as long as he keeps the original ones and reinstalls them when he moves out, which is a standard lease condition.

Long conversation

Supervisor: Have you registered for the first aid course yet?
Employee: Not yet. I saw the email, but I was not sure which date to pick.
Supervisor: You need to complete it within your first three months. The course includes CPR and the use of a defibrillator.
Employee: How long does the course take?
Supervisor: One full day, from nine to four, including the lunch break.
Employee: Are there sessions on the weekend?
Supervisor: There is one on the third Saturday of each month, but the weekday sessions are more popular.
Employee: I will take the one next Tuesday, then. How much does it cost?
Supervisor: Nothing out of your pocket. The company covers the fee, and the time counts as work hours.
Employee: What happens at the end of the day?
Supervisor: There is a practical exam. You have to demonstrate chest compressions and respond to a cardiac emergency scenario.
Employee: Is it hard to pass?
Supervisor: Most people pass on the first attempt. You get one retake within two weeks if needed.
Employee: And how long is the certificate valid for?
Supervisor: Three years. After that, you attend a half-day refresher instead of the full course.
Employee: I will book the Tuesday session right now.

Q30. By when must the employee complete the first aid course?

  1. A. Before the end of the month
  2. B. Before her annual performance review
  3. C. Within two weeks of receiving the email
  4. D. Within her first three months on the job (correct answer)

Answer: D — The supervisor says the first aid course must be completed within the first three months and that it covers CPR and the use of a defibrillator.

Q31. What happens at the end of the training day?

  1. A. Participants collect their certificates at reception
  2. B. There is a practical exam with chest compressions and a cardiac emergency scenario (correct answer)
  3. C. The group reviews the course evaluation forms
  4. D. Employees meet the on-site first aid officers

Answer: B — The supervisor says the day ends with a practical exam in which participants must demonstrate chest compressions and respond to a cardiac emergency scenario.

Q32. How does the certificate work after it expires?

  1. A. It must be renewed with the full course every year
  2. B. A half-day refresher course is enough to renew it (correct answer)
  3. C. Employees retake only the written quiz online
  4. D. The expiry date depends on the instructor

Answer: B — The certificate is valid for three years, after which a half-day refresher course is required instead of repeating the full one-day course.

Long conversation

Man: Let us go over the street fair plan before the committee meeting.
Woman: Good. First, the date. We were hoping for the third Saturday of next month, but the park is booked that weekend.
Man: What about the second Saturday?
Woman: The school has a sports carnival, so the street would be full of parents and cars.
Man: Then we move to the fourth Saturday.
Woman: That works. The council approved that date this morning.
Man: Next, the stall fees. Last year we charged sixty dollars per stall.
Woman: The council raised the road closure fee, so we need eighty dollars to cover it without losing money.
Man: Will stallholders accept that?
Woman: The organisers I talked to said yes, as long as the price includes a table and a power outlet.
Man: I will update the application form. What about the music?
Woman: The local brass band confirmed, and a dance school wants a small stage near the fountain.
Man: There is already a stage planned there for the cake competition. Can they share it?
Woman: The dance school agreed to perform before the judging starts at two.
Man: One last thing, the weather. What if it rains?
Woman: The marquee hire is already booked, and the indoor hall acts as backup.
Man: Then we are in good shape.

Q33. Why was the street fair moved to the fourth Saturday?

  1. A. The council only allows one street event per month
  2. B. The forecast predicts rain on the second Saturday
  3. C. Stallholders requested a later date for preparation
  4. D. Both the second and third Saturdays were already taken (correct answer)

Answer: D — The park was booked for the third Saturday and a school sports carnival fills the second, so the committee chose the fourth Saturday, which the council approved.

Q34. Why must the stall fee rise to eighty dollars?

  1. A. To pay for the hired marquee
  2. B. To cover the cost of the band's travel
  3. C. The council increased the road closure fee (correct answer)
  4. D. Because fewer stalls are available this year

Answer: C — The woman says the council raised the road closure fee, so the committee needs eighty dollars per stall to avoid losing money, with a table and power outlet included.

Q35. How will the conflict over the stage be resolved?

  1. A. The dance school will perform indoors instead
  2. B. The cake competition will move to the indoor hall
  3. C. The brass band will use a smaller temporary stage
  4. D. The dance school performs before the cake judging at two (correct answer)

Answer: D — The dance school agreed to share the stage near the fountain and to perform before the cake competition judging begins at two o'clock.

Long conversation

Officer: Thanks for letting me look at your bins today.
Resident: No problem. We try to recycle, but I am not sure we are doing it right.
Officer: Most households have the same worry. Let me start with the recycling bin.
Resident: We put cans, bottles, and paper in there.
Officer: That is all fine. I can see a takeaway coffee cup, though. Those have a plastic lining and belong in general waste.
Resident: I thought they were recyclable.
Officer: It is a common mistake. The lining cannot be separated by the sorting machines.
Resident: What about soft plastic bags?
Officer: Collect them separately and drop them at the collection bin outside the supermarket.
Resident: And the old phone I found in a drawer?
Officer: Electronics never go in the bins. The city has a free drop-off point at the library every first Saturday.
Resident: That is convenient. Anything else we should change?
Officer: Rinse food containers before recycling them. A dirty jar can contaminate an entire load.
Resident: I will start rinsing everything.
Officer: One more tip. Cardboard boxes should be flattened so they do not fill the bin so quickly.
Resident: I have been folding them anyway, so that is an easy habit to keep.

Q36. Why do takeaway coffee cups belong in general waste?

  1. A. They are too small for the sorting machines
  2. B. Their plastic lining cannot be separated by sorting machines (correct answer)
  3. C. They are made from mixed metals
  4. D. The ink on the cups makes them hazardous

Answer: B — The officer explains that the plastic lining inside takeaway coffee cups cannot be separated by the sorting machines, so the cups belong in general waste.

Q37. Where should soft plastic bags be taken?

  1. A. To the collection bin outside the supermarket (correct answer)
  2. B. Into the blue recycling bin at home
  3. C. To the library drop-off point
  4. D. To the depot on the first Saturday of the month

Answer: A — The officer advises collecting soft plastic bags separately and dropping them at the collection bin outside the supermarket rather than putting them in the household bin.

Q38. When can residents drop off old electronics?

  1. A. At the library on the first Saturday of each month (correct answer)
  2. B. Any weekday at the council office
  3. C. During the Thursday evening market
  4. D. Only during the annual waste amnesty week

Answer: A — Old phones and other electronics never go in the bins, and the city offers a free drop-off point at the library on the first Saturday of every month.

Part 3 — talks

Talk

Good afternoon, everyone. Thank you for coming to this session about blood donation. I am here to answer common questions and, I hope, convince some of you to book your first appointment. First, who can donate? If you are over sixteen, weigh more than fifty kilograms, and are in good health, you generally qualify. Some conditions, such as low iron, may require a short delay, but the staff will check your levels at the centre before you donate. The actual donation takes about ten minutes. The whole visit, including registration, a quick health interview, and refreshments afterward, usually lasts around an hour. You can donate whole blood every twelve weeks. Now, what happens to your donation? It is separated into components. Red cells, plasma, and platelets are used for different patients, and a single donation can help up to three people. I often hear people say they are afraid of needles. If that is you, the nurses recommend drinking water beforehand and looking away during the insertion. Most donors tell me the discomfort lasts only a few seconds. Before you leave, I want to mention the upcoming mobile clinic. It will be parked outside the community hall next Tuesday from nine until three. Walk-ins are welcome, but booking a slot online guarantees you will not wait long. Thank you, and I hope to see some of you there.

Q39. What is the speaker's main purpose in this talk?

  1. A. To train volunteers for the mobile clinic
  2. B. To compare hospital blood needs across regions
  3. C. To announce new rules for blood donors
  4. D. To answer common questions and encourage listeners to book a donation (correct answer)

Answer: D — The speaker says the session answers common questions and aims to convince listeners to book their first appointment, then explains eligibility and the donation process.

Q40. How long does the whole donation visit usually take?

  1. A. Ten minutes
  2. B. About an hour (correct answer)
  3. C. Thirty minutes
  4. D. Two hours including rest

Answer: B — The donation itself takes about ten minutes, but registration, a health interview, and refreshments bring the whole visit to roughly an hour.

Q41. What does the speaker recommend for people who fear needles?

  1. A. Donating platelets instead of whole blood
  2. B. Booking the first appointment of the day
  3. C. Bringing a friend to the donation chair
  4. D. Drinking water beforehand and looking away during the insertion (correct answer)

Answer: D — The nurses recommend that nervous donors drink water beforehand and look away during the needle insertion, and most donors feel only a few seconds of discomfort.

Talk

Welcome to today's workshop on composting. I am Laura, the coordinator here at the community garden. We built these bins two years ago, and since then we have kept roughly a third of the garden's waste out of landfill. Let me explain how our system works. There are three bays. You start by adding a layer of brown material, which is dry stuff like fallen leaves, shredded cardboard, and straw. Next comes a layer of green material: grass clippings, vegetable scraps, and coffee grounds. The secret is balance; aim for two parts brown to one part green. If the pile smells bad, it usually has too much green material, so add more brown. If it is dry and nothing is breaking down, add water. We turn the pile with a garden fork every two weeks so air reaches the middle. In about four months, the material at the bottom turns into dark, crumbly compost ready for the garden beds. What should not go in? Meat, dairy, and cooked food attract rats, so they stay out. Also avoid diseased plants and weeds with seeds. We sell the finished compost to members for three dollars a bag, and the money pays for new seedlings. There is a signup sheet near the gate if you want a volunteer shift. We especially need people on weekend mornings.

Q42. What ratio of brown to green material does the speaker recommend?

  1. A. Two parts brown for every one part green (correct answer)
  2. B. Equal parts of each
  3. C. Three parts green for every one part brown
  4. D. One part brown for every three parts green

Answer: A — The speaker says the secret is balance and that composters should aim for two parts of brown material to one part of green material in the bins.

Q43. What problem does a bad smell in the compost pile usually indicate?

  1. A. The pile has too much brown material
  2. B. The pile has not been watered enough
  3. C. The pile is ready to be harvested
  4. D. The pile has too much green material (correct answer)

Answer: D — If the pile smells bad it usually has too much green material, so the speaker advises adding more brown material to restore the balance.

Q44. What happens at the garden on weekend mornings?

  1. A. Volunteer shifts are especially needed then (correct answer)
  2. B. The volunteer group turns all the bins
  3. C. Compost is sold at a discounted price
  4. D. The finished compost is harvested

Answer: A — The speaker says the garden especially needs volunteers on weekend mornings, and a signup sheet is available near the gate.

Talk

Good morning. I am here to explain the new fare system that starts on the first of next month. For the past twenty years, passengers have bought paper tickets from the driver. From next month, every bus and train will accept the new travel card, and paper tickets will no longer be sold. Here is how it works. You tap the card on the reader when you board, and tap again when you get off. The system calculates your fare based on the distance you travelled. One change that will please frequent travellers is the daily fare cap. No matter how many trips you make in one day, you will never pay more than the cost of a day pass. Weekly capping arrives a month later and limits your total for the whole week. There are also benefits for students and seniors. Their concession card can be linked to the travel card, which halves the fare on all routes. If you already have a travel card from the old system, you do not need to buy a new one; the reader will recognise it after a free software update at any station. Finally, remember that the trial period lasts three months. During that time, we will be collecting data on how often each stop is used, and the results will shape future route planning. You can find a full guide on the transit website.

Q45. How is the fare for a trip calculated under the new system?

  1. A. It is a fixed fare for all routes
  2. B. It is based on the time of day
  3. C. It depends on the distance travelled between tapping on and off (correct answer)
  4. D. It matches the old paper ticket prices

Answer: C — Riders tap the card when boarding and tap off when leaving, and the system calculates the fare from the distance travelled between the two taps.

Q46. When does the weekly fare cap start?

  1. A. On the first of next month with the card system
  2. B. One month after the daily cap begins (correct answer)
  3. C. After the three-month trial period ends
  4. D. At the start of the next school term

Answer: B — The daily fare cap starts with the new system, and the speaker says weekly capping arrives one month later to limit the total paid across a whole week.

Q47. What must old travel card holders do to use the new readers?

  1. A. Buy a new card at full price
  2. B. Register their card online before the first trip
  3. C. Exchange the card at the transit office in person
  4. D. Get a free software update at any station (correct answer)

Answer: D — Existing travel cards will be recognised by the new readers after a free software update at any station, so cardholders do not need to buy a new one.

Talk

Welcome, everyone, to the community recreation centre. I am pleased to see so many new faces. Today I will walk you through what volunteering here involves. The centre runs programs for all ages, from after-school activities to morning fitness classes for older residents. Volunteers usually choose one area: front desk, program support, or maintenance. Front desk volunteers greet visitors, answer phone calls, and handle bookings. Program support means helping instructors set up rooms and welcoming participants. Maintenance covers small repairs, garden work, and setting out equipment. Your first shift is always with an experienced volunteer, so you will never be alone. We ask for a minimum of one shift per fortnight, and each shift lasts three hours. You can swap shifts through the volunteer app, but please give at least two days' notice. Before your first shift, complete the online induction. It takes about forty minutes and covers safety rules and privacy. One thing to remember: the centre is a no-photo zone in the swimming pool area and the children's rooms. You will receive a badge with your name and role; wear it at all times. If you have any questions, the volunteer coordinator, Ms Hall, is in the office next to the front desk. Thank you for giving your time.

Q48. Which volunteer areas does the centre offer?

  1. A. Front desk, program support, and maintenance (correct answer)
  2. B. Reception, marketing, and fundraising
  3. C. Coaching, administration, and transport
  4. D. Catering, security, and cleaning

Answer: A — Volunteers usually choose one of three areas: front desk, program support, or maintenance, and first shifts are always taken with an experienced volunteer.

Q49. What is the minimum volunteer commitment?

  1. A. One shift every week
  2. B. Two shifts per month
  3. C. One shift of three hours every two weeks (correct answer)
  4. D. Four hours per month during school holidays

Answer: C — The centre asks for a minimum of one shift per fortnight, and each shift lasts three hours, with shifts able to be swapped through the volunteer app.

Q50. Where must volunteers not take photos?

  1. A. In the swimming pool area and the children's rooms (correct answer)
  2. B. In the fitness studios and the foyer
  3. C. In the maintenance shed and the garden
  4. D. In the office and the booking hall

Answer: A — The centre is a no-photo zone in the swimming pool area and the children's rooms, and volunteers must wear their name badges at all times.

Reading - 50 questions (65 minutes)

Grammar

Q1. If the engine _____ properly, the car would not have stalled on the highway.

  1. A. had been maintained (correct answer)
  2. B. was maintained
  3. C. will be maintained
  4. D. has been maintained

Answer: A — A past unreal condition requires the past perfect 'had been maintained' in the if-clause of a third conditional sentence.

Q2. The library wing, _____ in 1923, has recently been restored.

  1. A. who was built
  2. B. which was built (correct answer)
  3. C. what was built
  4. D. where was built

Answer: B — In a non-defining relative clause, 'which was built' adds the extra information about the library wing.

Q3. The committee asked that all reports _____ filed by noon on Friday.

  1. A. are filed
  2. B. will be filed
  3. C. be filed (correct answer)
  4. D. were filed

Answer: C — The subjunctive after 'asked that' uses the base verb form 'be filed' regardless of the subject.

Q4. The foreman said the crew _____ the site tomorrow morning.

  1. A. reaches
  2. B. will reach
  3. C. reached
  4. D. would reach (correct answer)

Answer: D — Reported speech after a past reporting verb backshifts 'will reach' to 'would reach'.

Q5. Not once during the meeting _____ the manager acknowledge the team's overtime effort.

  1. A. she did
  2. B. did she (correct answer)
  3. C. she had
  4. D. had she

Answer: B — 'Not once' at the start of the clause triggers subject-verb inversion, moving 'did' before the subject.

Q6. Unless the driver _____ her licence immediately, the fine will double.

  1. A. will renew
  2. B. renewed
  3. C. renews (correct answer)
  4. D. would renew

Answer: C — A present-tense verb in the unless-clause expresses the condition for a future result, so 'renews' is correct.

Q7. The director postponed the announcement _____ the full report arrived.

  1. A. until (correct answer)
  2. B. provided that
  3. C. as though
  4. D. or else

Answer: A — 'Until' expresses the later time to which the announcement was deferred, fitting the meaning of 'postponed'.

Q8. The results of the survey _____ to the public by next Monday.

  1. A. are released
  2. B. were released
  3. C. have been released
  4. D. will be released (correct answer)

Answer: D — The future passive 'will be released' fits the deadline marker 'by next Monday' in this sentence.

Q9. By the time the ferry docks, the passengers _____ for nine hours.

  1. A. will travel
  2. B. travel
  3. C. will have travelled (correct answer)
  4. D. have travelled

Answer: C — The future perfect 'will have travelled' expresses an action completed before a specific future time.

Q10. The mountain refuge is too steep for any vehicle, so it can be reached only _____.

  1. A. by car
  2. B. by boat
  3. C. by air
  4. D. on foot (correct answer)

Answer: D — 'On foot' is the standard fixed phrase describing travel by walking rather than by vehicle.

Q11. _____ of the tickets had been sold by noon on the first day.

  1. A. A little
  2. B. Several hundred (correct answer)
  3. C. The most of
  4. D. Much of

Answer: B — 'Several hundred' correctly quantifies the countable noun 'tickets' and agrees with the plural verb.

Q12. Had the alarm system been tested, the burglary _____.

  1. A. would not have succeeded (correct answer)
  2. B. would not succeed
  3. C. will not succeed
  4. D. does not succeed

Answer: A — An inverted 'had' conditional refers to an unreal past situation, so the result takes 'would have'.

Q13. The gallery charges a reduced admission fee for visitors _____ are under eighteen.

  1. A. which are
  2. B. who are (correct answer)
  3. C. whom are
  4. D. where are

Answer: B — 'Who are' is the subject relative phrase referring to the visitors described in the clause.

Q14. _____, the fire crews managed to contain the blaze within two hours.

  1. A. Despite the strong winds (correct answer)
  2. B. Although the strong winds
  3. C. Because the strong winds
  4. D. The strong winds

Answer: A — 'Despite' takes a noun phrase to express contrast, whereas 'although' would require a full clause.

Q15. Neither the supervisor nor the interns _____ aware of the schedule change.

  1. A. was made
  2. B. is made
  3. C. has been made
  4. D. were made (correct answer)

Answer: D — With 'neither...nor', the verb agrees with the nearer subject 'interns', so the plural 'were made' is used.

Q16. The technician suggested _____ the filter every three months to keep the air clean.

  1. A. to replace
  2. B. replacement
  3. C. replacing (correct answer)
  4. D. have replaced

Answer: C — 'Suggest' is followed by a gerund when no specific person performs the recommended action.

Q17. She rarely misses a deadline; this is the first report she _____ late in a decade.

  1. A. submits
  2. B. has submitted (correct answer)
  3. C. submitted
  4. D. is submitting

Answer: B — The present perfect 'has submitted' links a completed past action to the present result.

Q18. The village festival, _____ began in the nineteenth century, still draws crowds each autumn.

  1. A. who originally
  2. B. whom originally
  3. C. what originally
  4. D. which originally (correct answer)

Answer: D — 'Which originally' introduces the non-defining relative clause about the festival's history.

Q19. Under no circumstances _____ the emergency door while the aircraft is moving.

  1. A. should anyone open (correct answer)
  2. B. will anyone open
  3. C. might anyone open
  4. D. must anyone open

Answer: A — 'Under no circumstances' at the front of the clause requires inversion, and 'should' expresses the intended prohibition.

Q20. The harvest was smaller than usual, so the cooperative decided to ration _____ supplies.

  1. A. it is
  2. B. it's
  3. C. its (correct answer)
  4. D. their

Answer: C — 'Its' is the possessive determiner agreeing with the singular noun 'cooperative'.

Single passage 1

The Meridian Museum of Art began a sweeping digitisation project in 2019, aiming to photograph and catalogue its entire collection of 240,000 objects. By 2024, the museum had completed roughly 85 percent of the work, publishing high-resolution images and curatorial notes on an open-access website. The project's original motivation was simple: storage. Tens of thousands of objects, including ceramics, textiles, and botanical specimens, had sat for decades in basement racks where almost no visitor could see them. Digitisation, the museum argued, would turn a hidden archive into a public one.

The process is far from routine. Each object must be handled by a trained conservator, photographed under controlled lighting, and described by a cataloguer who verifies its provenance. A single large painting can occupy a two-person team for half a day. Fragile works, such as watercolours that fade when exposed to light, receive the shortest exposure times, and some objects are scanned rather than photographed so that their texture can be studied without physical contact.

Early results exceeded expectations. Downloads of the museum's digital files reached 1.2 million in the first full year, and roughly 40 percent of visits to the website came from outside the country where the museum is located. School groups now prepare for physical visits by exploring the collection online first, which curators say has made on-site tours more focused.

Critics note that digitisation is not preservation in itself: digital files must be re-mastered, servers maintained, and formats updated, and a purely digital collection can be lost to a single hard-drive failure. The museum acknowledges the point but insists the project has changed its mission. A collection that only a few hundred specialists could once consult is now available to anyone with an internet connection, and the basement racks, at last, have begun to empty.

Q21. What was the main reason the Meridian Museum gave for starting the digitisation project?

  1. A. To make hidden collection objects publicly visible (correct answer)
  2. B. To raise money from online donations
  3. C. To replace its physical galleries
  4. D. To reduce the number of staff members

Answer: A — The passage states the project's original motivation was storage: tens of thousands of objects had sat for decades in basement racks where almost no visitor could see them, so the goal was to make the hidden archive public.

Q22. What share of the collection had been digitised by 2024?

  1. A. About 45 percent
  2. B. About 85 percent (correct answer)
  3. C. About 60 percent
  4. D. About 95 percent

Answer: B — By 2024 the museum had completed roughly 85 percent of the digitisation work, publishing high-resolution images and curatorial notes on an open-access website.

Q23. Why are some objects scanned rather than photographed?

  1. A. Scanners are cheaper to run
  2. B. Photographs do not show colour
  3. C. Their texture can be studied without physical contact (correct answer)
  4. D. Scanning is much faster than photography

Answer: C — Some objects are scanned rather than photographed so that their texture can be studied without physical contact, as the passage explains in its account of the digitisation process.

Q24. How long can a single large painting occupy the digitisation team?

  1. A. A few minutes
  2. B. About an hour
  3. C. Half a day (correct answer)
  4. D. Nearly a full week

Answer: C — A single large painting can occupy a two-person team for half a day, meaning the digitisation process is far from routine and requires careful handling and controlled lighting.

Q25. In the first full year, what share of visits to the museum's website came from outside its home country?

  1. A. About 10 percent
  2. B. About 25 percent
  3. C. About 30 percent
  4. D. About 40 percent (correct answer)

Answer: D — Roughly 40 percent of visits to the website came from outside the country where the museum is located, one of the early results that exceeded expectations.

Q26. What does the passage say about fragile watercolours?

  1. A. They receive the shortest exposure times when photographed (correct answer)
  2. B. They are scanned at very low resolution
  3. C. They cannot be digitised at all
  4. D. They are stored in the basement rather than the racks

Answer: A — Fragile watercolours fade when exposed to light, so they receive the shortest exposure times during photography, and some objects are scanned instead so their texture can be studied without contact.

Q27. Which statement about early results is supported by the passage?

  1. A. School groups became less interested in visiting the museum
  2. B. Downloads of the museum's digital files reached 1.2 million in the first full year (correct answer)
  3. C. Curators said on-site tours became less focused
  4. D. The museum stopped lending objects to other galleries

Answer: B — Downloads of the museum's digital files reached 1.2 million in the first full year, and school groups began preparing for visits online first, which curators say made on-site tours more focused.

Q28. What criticism of digitisation do the critics raise?

  1. A. It damages fragile objects during photography
  2. B. It forces museums to close their galleries
  3. C. It makes collections harder for specialists to consult
  4. D. Digital files can be lost to a single hard-drive failure (correct answer)

Answer: D — Critics note that digital files must be re-mastered and servers maintained, and that a purely digital collection can be lost to a single hard-drive failure, so digitisation is not preservation in itself.

Single passage 2

The oceans do not sit still. Beneath the surface, a vast network of currents moves water, heat, and nutrients around the planet, and scientists describe the whole system as a kind of global conveyor belt. The best-known part of it is the surface circulation: winds push water into great rotating loops, called gyres, which carry warm water away from the equator and cold water back toward it. The Gulf Stream, for example, carries warm tropical water north across the Atlantic, which is why ports in northern Europe stay ice-free in winter while harbours at the same latitude in Canada freeze solid.

Deep below, a second, slower circulation is driven not by wind but by differences in temperature and saltiness. Cold, salty water is dense, so it sinks in the North Atlantic and creeps southward along the ocean floor, eventually rising again in the Pacific after a journey that can take a thousand years. This deep overturning carries dissolved oxygen to the abyssal plain, where creatures on the seabed depend on it, and it buries carbon that has been absorbed from the atmosphere.

Currents also shape where marine life gathers. Plankton drift with the water, and fish follow the plankton, so the boundaries between warm and cold currents mark some of the richest fishing grounds on the planet. Upwelling, where winds draw deep water to the surface along certain coasts, brings nutrients up from below and turns those narrow strips of ocean into biological hot spots.

The system, however, is not static, and oceanographers are watching it closely. Freshwater melting from polar ice sheets dilutes the salty surface water of the North Atlantic, and some computer models suggest that continued dilution could weaken the overturning circulation over the coming decades. A weaker current would still move water, but it would carry less heat, and the climates of entire regions would shift in ways that are difficult to predict. For now, the measurements show a system that is varying but has not collapsed.

Q29. According to the passage, what drives the rotating loops called gyres?

  1. A. Differences in water temperature
  2. B. Winds pushing surface water (correct answer)
  3. C. Gravity pulling water downhill
  4. D. The rotation of the planet alone

Answer: B — The passage explains that winds push water into great rotating loops called gyres, which carry warm water away from the equator and cold water back toward it.

Q30. Why does the passage mention that ports in northern Europe stay ice-free in winter?

  1. A. To illustrate how a warm current warms a whole region (correct answer)
  2. B. To argue that all ocean ports freeze in winter
  3. C. To compare shipping costs across continents
  4. D. To show that Canada has more harbours

Answer: A — The Gulf Stream carries warm tropical water north across the Atlantic, which is why ports in northern Europe stay ice-free in winter while harbours at the same latitude in Canada freeze solid; the example illustrates how a warm current warms a whole region.

Q31. What causes the deep water in the North Atlantic to sink?

  1. A. Warm water rising from the seabed
  2. B. Strong winds stirring the surface
  3. C. Freshwater flowing in from rivers
  4. D. Cold, salty water that is dense enough to sink (correct answer)

Answer: D — Cold, salty water is dense, so it sinks in the North Atlantic and creeps southward along the ocean floor; density differences, not wind, drive this deeper circulation.

Q32. How long can the deep journey from the North Atlantic to the Pacific take?

  1. A. About a century
  2. B. About a thousand years (correct answer)
  3. C. About a million years
  4. D. A few decades

Answer: B — Deep water eventually rises again in the Pacific after a journey that can take a thousand years, the timescale the passage gives for the deep overturning circulation.

Q33. Why do some of the richest fishing grounds form where currents meet?

  1. A. Because fish avoid warm water entirely
  2. B. Because shipping traffic is heaviest there
  3. C. Because plankton drift with the water and fish follow the plankton (correct answer)
  4. D. Because fishing boats gather near ports

Answer: C — Plankton drift with the water and fish follow the plankton, so the boundaries between warm and cold currents mark some of the richest fishing grounds on the planet.

Q34. What is 'upwelling' as described in the passage?

  1. A. The sinking of dense water to the abyssal plain
  2. B. The melting of polar ice sheets
  3. C. The burial of carbon in seabed sediments
  4. D. Winds drawing deep water, rich in nutrients, up to the surface (correct answer)

Answer: D — Upwelling is where winds draw deep water to the surface along certain coasts, bringing nutrients up from below and turning those narrow strips of ocean into biological hot spots.

Q35. What could weaken the overturning circulation, according to computer models?

  1. A. Freshwater from melting polar ice diluting the salty North Atlantic (correct answer)
  2. B. Warmer air temperatures increasing wind strength
  3. C. Fish moving to colder latitudes
  4. D. Ships pumping ballast water into the ocean

Answer: A — Freshwater melting from polar ice sheets dilutes the salty surface water of the North Atlantic, and computer models suggest continued dilution could weaken the overturning circulation.

Q36. What does the passage say would happen if the overturning circulation weakened?

  1. A. The oceans would stop moving completely
  2. B. Marine life would vanish from all coasts
  3. C. It would carry less heat and regional climates would shift (correct answer)
  4. D. Surface currents would reverse direction entirely

Answer: C — A weaker current would still move water but would carry less heat, and the climates of entire regions would shift in ways that are difficult to predict.

Paired passages 1

Construction Firm Announcement

Northgate Timber Works announced today that it will build a sixteen-storey residential tower using mass timber, a material made by gluing layers of wood into strong panels. The company says the tower will be the tallest wooden building in the region when it is completed. Construction is expected to use 30 percent less foundation concrete than a similar steel-and-concrete tower, and the panels are prefabricated off site, which the firm claims will shorten the build by several months. Northgate also points out that the wood stores carbon captured from the atmosphere and that, at the end of the building's life, panels can be reused or recycled rather than sent to landfill. The first residents are expected to move in within two years. The project has already received building approval from the city council, and site preparation will begin in the spring. The firm plans to publish a monthly progress report so that the public can follow the construction.

Building Research Unit Report

Engineers at the city building research unit have tested mass timber panels for fire resistance and found that thick wooden columns char slowly and keep their strength far longer than unprotected steel, which softens and buckles in intense heat. The unit's report supports taller timber buildings but urges that sprinkler systems, sealed cavities, and careful detailing remain mandatory in every design. It also notes that sourcing matters: timber must come from certified forests, because logging practice determines whether wooden buildings genuinely reduce emissions. The report ends with a call for more monitoring of timber towers once they are occupied, since long-term data on moisture, vibration, and repair costs is still thin. In particular, the engineers want sensors installed in the walls of the first tall buildings so that any change in the panels can be detected before it becomes a problem.

Community Architect Blog

I am often asked whether timber towers are a gimmick. They are not, but neither are they a free pass. A well-designed timber building is light, so its foundations can be much smaller, and it is pleasant to work in, with warm surfaces and visible grain. Yet the industry still needs carpenters skilled in modern joinery, and training programmes are only just catching up. And the real prize is not the single tall tower: it is using wood for the millions of ordinary mid-rise buildings that make up most of our cities. If we wait for timber to prove itself only in landmark skyscrapers, we will miss the far larger opportunity sitting in every suburban street. Manufacturers, for their part, are expanding production of the standard panels used in those mid-rise buildings, which should bring prices down over the next few years.

Q37. According to the announcement, how does the timber tower compare with a steel-and-concrete tower?

  1. A. It will use 30 percent less foundation concrete (correct answer)
  2. B. It will cost twice as much to build
  3. C. It will need taller cranes on site
  4. D. It will take ten years to complete

Answer: A — Northgate Timber Works says the tower will use 30 percent less foundation concrete than a similar steel-and-concrete tower, while panels prefabricated off site will shorten the build.

Q38. What did the research unit find about thick wooden columns in a fire?

  1. A. They collapse as quickly as unprotected steel
  2. B. They burn through within five minutes
  3. C. They char slowly and keep their strength longer than unprotected steel (correct answer)
  4. D. They are unaffected by fire entirely

Answer: C — The research unit found that thick wooden columns char slowly and keep their strength far longer than unprotected steel, which softens and buckles in intense heat.

Q39. What condition does the research unit say determines whether timber buildings really reduce emissions?

  1. A. The buildings must be under ten storeys
  2. B. The timber must come from certified forests (correct answer)
  3. C. The concrete must be replaced entirely
  4. D. The panels must be imported from abroad

Answer: B — The report urges that timber come from certified forests, because logging practice determines whether wooden buildings genuinely reduce emissions.

Q40. What is the architect's overall view of timber towers?

  1. A. They are a passing fashion that will soon disappear
  2. B. They are always cheaper than any other option
  3. C. They should be limited to single-storey buildings
  4. D. They are a genuine option but not a solution by themselves (correct answer)

Answer: D — The architect says timber towers are not a gimmick but neither are they a free pass: they are a genuine option, yet the larger prize is ordinary mid-rise buildings rather than landmark towers.

Q41. What benefit of prefabrication does the firm mention in the announcement?

  1. A. It should shorten the build by several months (correct answer)
  2. B. It removes the need for foundations
  3. C. It doubles the number of workers required
  4. D. It eliminates fire risk during construction

Answer: A — The firm claims the prefabricated panels will shorten the build by several months, one of the benefits listed in the announcement.

Q42. What does the architect say the industry still needs?

  1. A. Cheaper raw materials
  2. B. Taller building cranes
  3. C. Carpenters trained in modern joinery (correct answer)
  4. D. Larger factory buildings

Answer: C — The industry still needs carpenters skilled in modern joinery, and training programmes are only just catching up, according to the architect's blog.

Q43. What idea runs through all three texts?

  1. A. Timber buildings must never exceed ten storeys
  2. B. Wood can be a serious structural material for buildings (correct answer)
  3. C. Timber construction is always more expensive than concrete
  4. D. Certified forests are too scarce to supply builders

Answer: B — All three texts treat wood as a serious structural material: the firm builds with it, the engineers test it for fire and sourcing, and the architect argues for expanding its everyday use.

Paired passages 2

Company Policy Notice

Harbour and Cole, a regional logistics firm with 1,400 employees, introduced a mental health policy in January. The policy gives every staff member ten paid wellbeing days per year, separate from sick leave; it names a trained mental health first-aider on every floor; and it promises that managers will meet each team twice a month to review workloads. The company says the changes followed two years of rising sick leave, with stress cited in 38 percent of absence notes. The policy takes effect at the start of the next quarter, and the human resources department will publish a progress report every six months so that employees can see whether the measures are working. The firm has also set aside a budget for counselling sessions, which can be booked confidentially through the staff portal. Managers received two days of training on recognising early signs of strain before the policy was announced.

Employee Survey Summary

Six months after the policy launched, an independent survey of 900 employees found that 61 percent said their workload felt more manageable, while 27 percent reported no change and 12 percent said their situation had worsened. Use of wellbeing days was uneven: staff in the warehouse took only a third as many days as office-based colleagues. Respondents also said the monthly workload reviews were the most useful element, with three-quarters of them rating the reviews helpful. Several warehouse workers wrote in the open comments that they had rarely been asked for their opinion before. The survey was distributed in both the main office and the warehouse, and participation was voluntary and anonymous. The company plans to repeat the survey every year to track whether the early improvements hold.

Occupational Psychologist Commentary

Policies are necessary but not sufficient. A dozen paid days mean little if a worker fears being punished for taking them, so the culture around the policy matters more than its wording. In my experience the strongest predictor of a successful workplace mental health programme is whether immediate supervisors treat the days as a right rather than a favour. The survey result, that warehouse staff used far fewer days, suggests exactly the divide in trust that undermines these schemes. Without visible support from team leaders, the same policy will be used confidently in one department and avoided in another. The first step is honest conversation: managers should ask their teams what they need, then act on the answers. It is also wise to measure outcomes, such as absence rates, before announcing any new initiative so that progress can be judged fairly.

Q44. According to the policy notice, what share of absence notes cited stress in the two years before the policy?

  1. A. 12 percent
  2. B. 27 percent
  3. C. 33 percent
  4. D. 38 percent (correct answer)

Answer: D — The policy notice says stress was cited in 38 percent of absence notes during the two years of rising sick leave that preceded the policy.

Q45. How often does the policy require managers to review workloads with their teams?

  1. A. Once a year
  2. B. Twice a month (correct answer)
  3. C. Every Friday
  4. D. Once a week

Answer: B — The policy promises that managers will meet each team twice a month to review workloads, one of the three named measures in the notice.

Q46. In the survey, what share of employees said their workload felt more manageable?

  1. A. 61 percent (correct answer)
  2. B. 58 percent
  3. C. 44 percent
  4. D. 36 percent

Answer: A — The survey found 61 percent of employees said their workload felt more manageable, while 27 percent reported no change and 12 percent said their situation had worsened.

Q47. What did survey respondents name as the most useful element of the policy?

  1. A. The ten paid wellbeing days
  2. B. The mental health first-aiders
  3. C. The monthly workload reviews (correct answer)
  4. D. The six-month progress reports

Answer: C — Respondents said the monthly workload reviews were the most useful element, with three-quarters of them rating the reviews helpful.

Q48. What does the psychologist say the warehouse staff's use of wellbeing days shows?

  1. A. That warehouse work causes no stress at all
  2. B. That the days were too generous
  3. C. That office staff need more days
  4. D. A divide in trust between departments (correct answer)

Answer: D — The psychologist reads the warehouse staff's far lower use of wellbeing days as evidence of a divide in trust between departments, the very split that undermines such schemes.

Q49. What does the psychologist identify as the strongest predictor of success?

  1. A. Whether supervisors treat wellbeing days as a right rather than a favour (correct answer)
  2. B. The exact number of days offered
  3. C. The size of the company
  4. D. Whether the policy is printed in several languages

Answer: A — The strongest predictor of success is whether immediate supervisors treat the days as a right rather than a favour, the psychologist says.

Q50. What do all three texts together suggest about workplace mental health?

  1. A. Paid days alone always solve the problem
  2. B. It needs both formal policy and genuine support from managers (correct answer)
  3. C. It is a purely personal matter for each employee
  4. D. It can be fixed by hiring more staff

Answer: B — Together the three texts show that a formal policy only works when managers genuinely support it: the notice supplies the structure, the survey shows uneven uptake, and the commentary explains why culture decides the outcome.

Writing — 2 tasks (45 minutes)

Task 1

Some people think that young people should follow the traditions of their society. Others believe that young people should be free to challenge and change traditions. Discuss both views and give your own opinion.

Write at least 250 words.

250+ words

Task 2

Answer the following questions about movies and television:
- What kind of movies or TV shows do you enjoy watching?
- What is a film or show that has influenced you?
- Do you prefer watching at home or in a theater?

3 short answers

Speaking — 5 tasks (10 minutes)

Task 1 — advantages

Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of the following situation.

Speaking time: 90 seconds

Task 2 — personal_experience

Talk about your own experience related to the picture.

Speaking time: 60 seconds

Task 3 — personal_experience

Talk about your own experience related to the picture.

Speaking time: 60 seconds

Task 4 — opinion

Give your opinion on a topic related to the picture.

Speaking time: 60 seconds

Task 5 — personal_experience

Talk about your own experience related to the picture.

Speaking time: 60 seconds